philafootdoc
New Member
- Joined
- Feb 25, 2022
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Hi,
I am looking for any advice I can get on this topic. I will try to be short and to the point.
I have been working at a private practice for 3.5 years now with an old pod that wasn't doing much surgery. He was basically chip and clip. Over the last 3.5 years, I have helped build up the practice since I was doing more surgeries than the old pod was ever doing and doing cases that he would never do (rear foot/ankle). My salary structure for the first 2 years was 85k with bonus of 25% over 192k, and the last 2 years it has been 110k with bonus 35% over 300k. In the last 12 months I have collected more than 500k, so 65% of my bonus that goes directly to the old pod was around 120-130k just in the last 12 months. For the last 3.5 years, I have been seeing a majority of the patients. In the last year, he also hired another associate so the older pod no longer sees patients, maybe 10-15 a week. He wants to retire over the next 6 years and is now offering both of us 25% partnership over the next 2-4 years. I hope what I wrote makes sense, I am not sure if I it does.
So my question:
He hired the podiatry valuation guy. In his valuation, he has included nursing homes that I do not do and the other associate isn't interested in doing either. he does not own any of the nursing homes and has no official contract with them.
the practice has been valued at around $750k.
His plan for my compensation is 40% of collections and 25% of excess cash flow at end of year.
He wants both of us to pay around 4k a month for the next 24 months with additional lump sum of 98k in year 3 to get 25% of the practice, and he wants to be paid 100K a year as well for the next 3 years.
If my calculations are correct, I'd be making like 200k gross before tax and like 100k after subtracting tax and paying him 50k a year. This seems like a horrible deal.
Does this sound reasonable?
My other concerns are that
1: he is including nursing homes in the valuation, is that reasonable?
and 2: I have been working for him for 4 years and making him at least 50-100k a year and building up and running his practice. Shouldn't that count for something and maybe lower the amount I have to pay to buy my share? Or am I wrong and the offer is reasonable despite it being the same for the new associate?
Again, any advice would be appreciated.
I am looking for any advice I can get on this topic. I will try to be short and to the point.
I have been working at a private practice for 3.5 years now with an old pod that wasn't doing much surgery. He was basically chip and clip. Over the last 3.5 years, I have helped build up the practice since I was doing more surgeries than the old pod was ever doing and doing cases that he would never do (rear foot/ankle). My salary structure for the first 2 years was 85k with bonus of 25% over 192k, and the last 2 years it has been 110k with bonus 35% over 300k. In the last 12 months I have collected more than 500k, so 65% of my bonus that goes directly to the old pod was around 120-130k just in the last 12 months. For the last 3.5 years, I have been seeing a majority of the patients. In the last year, he also hired another associate so the older pod no longer sees patients, maybe 10-15 a week. He wants to retire over the next 6 years and is now offering both of us 25% partnership over the next 2-4 years. I hope what I wrote makes sense, I am not sure if I it does.
So my question:
He hired the podiatry valuation guy. In his valuation, he has included nursing homes that I do not do and the other associate isn't interested in doing either. he does not own any of the nursing homes and has no official contract with them.
the practice has been valued at around $750k.
His plan for my compensation is 40% of collections and 25% of excess cash flow at end of year.
He wants both of us to pay around 4k a month for the next 24 months with additional lump sum of 98k in year 3 to get 25% of the practice, and he wants to be paid 100K a year as well for the next 3 years.
If my calculations are correct, I'd be making like 200k gross before tax and like 100k after subtracting tax and paying him 50k a year. This seems like a horrible deal.
Does this sound reasonable?
My other concerns are that
1: he is including nursing homes in the valuation, is that reasonable?
and 2: I have been working for him for 4 years and making him at least 50-100k a year and building up and running his practice. Shouldn't that count for something and maybe lower the amount I have to pay to buy my share? Or am I wrong and the offer is reasonable despite it being the same for the new associate?
Again, any advice would be appreciated.
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