Can a DO................................................ .....

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dreambig2night

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1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)
 
dreambig2night said:
1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)

1.) If you do an Allopathic residency you can. If you do an Osteopathic residency you will be part of the AOA (American Osteopathic Association)

2.) You have to pass the COMPLEX if you plan to get a DO medical lisence, but you can also take the USMLE if you plan to enter an allopathic residency. I'm pretty sure you have to have a state lisence to practice within a particular state.

3.) DOs cannot practice anywhere in the world, but their popularity and international practice rights are slowly growing. Some countries grant DOs full medical rights (just as an MD) while some countries do not. In the US however, DOs have an equal scope of practice to an MD and the only thing that separates the two doctoral degrees is the fact that DOs learn OMT, while MDs do not. Both are considered physicians.
 
dreambig2night said:
1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)

1. Yes; DOs are even members of the Massachusetts Medical Society (publishers of NEJM).

2. DOs can be licensed to practice medicine in all US states-either governed by an osteopathic board or board of medicine; some states have both, some have one board which govern both professions.

3. Search for the "DO international practice rights" document linked in previous posts in this forum or the osteopathic forum. I have no idea if having an MD residency would grease the wheels of bureaucracy, or not.
 
dreambig2night said:
1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)


1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

Answer: Most definately yes. The AMA isn't purely MD but physicians and their current goal is to get as many members (MDs or DOs) as possible (so they can have more clout when it comes to policy making/legislation). Many DO students are student members of the AMA (and there is an AMA chapter is almost every DO school)


2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

Answer: DOs have full practice rights in all 50 states, DC, and other US jurisdictions that are governed by their own licensure board. All accept COMLEX as the test for licensure. 5 states (those five have osteopathic board, and a strong DO influence in those states) require a DO to do an osteopathic internship (or do an ACGME internship that is approved by the AOA) in order to get an unrestricted license.


3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)

Answer: The complete answer is quite long but the short of it is yes, many countries will recognize US-trained DOs. When looking over those lists of international practice rights - remember that these are for permanent licensure (as in relocating to a new country and setting up shop there). Medical missionaries (such as Médecins Sans Frontières/Doctors Without Borders) do take US-trained DOs even into countries where DOs have no established practice rights (beggers can't be choosers in countries where there is a severe need for healthcare)
 
dreambig2night said:
1)............become a member of the AMA (American Medical Association)?

2) practise in states without a State Osteopathic Board?

3)practise anywhere in the world as a DO with an MD residency?
(I know the scope is limited to practise as a DO with a DO residency...as of now, at least)

Yes
 
clc8503 said:
1.) If you do an Allopathic residency you can. If you do an Osteopathic residency you will be part of the AOA (American Osteopathic Association)

2.) You have to pass the COMPLEX if you plan to get a DO medical lisence, but you can also take the USMLE if you plan to enter an allopathic residency. I'm pretty sure you have to have a state lisence to practice within a particular state.


These 2 things are wrong.

1. Anyone can join the AMA, I'm a student and I'm a member. AMA has NOTHING to do with residency.

2. You are confusing licensure with residency. They are not related. Residency is solely for board certification. Once you take the USMLE/COMLEX, you are licensed. Also, you do not have to take the USMLE to go into an allopathic residency, you can just take COMLEX.
 
clc8503 said:
1.) If you do an Allopathic residency you can. If you do an Osteopathic residency you will be part of the AOA (American Osteopathic Association)

2.) You have to pass the COMPLEX if you plan to get a DO medical lisence, but you can also take the USMLE if you plan to enter an allopathic residency. I'm pretty sure you have to have a state lisence to practice within a particular state.

3.) DOs cannot practice anywhere in the world, but their popularity and international practice rights are slowly growing. Some countries grant DOs full medical rights (just as an MD) while some countries do not. In the US however, DOs have an equal scope of practice to an MD and the only thing that separates the two doctoral degrees is the fact that DOs learn OMT, while MDs do not. Both are considered physicians.


1) I'm a member of the AOA and AMA. I am a DO student.

2) What's the COMPLEX? You can get an Allopathic residency with the COMLEX only. You do not have to take the USMLE.
 
(nicedream) said:
2. You are confusing licensure with residency. They are not related. Residency is solely for board certification. Once you take the USMLE/COMLEX, you are licensed. Also, you do not have to take the USMLE to go into an allopathic residency, you can just take COMLEX.

Not true. Once you pass the USMLE/COMLEX (all three steps) and have also completed the other requirements of the state in which you wish to practice, you can apply for a medical license. Most states also require one year of post-graduate training for licensure for US MDs and DOs. Many require three years for FMGs. Quite a few states, however, require at least two years of post-graduate training for US MDs and DOs, and one state even requires three years for US MDs, DOs and FMGs. Thus, residency is required in many cases for licensure and the two ARE related in that way- no residency; no license.
 
scpod said:
Not true. Once you pass the USMLE/COMLEX (all three steps) and have also completed the other requirements of the state in which you wish to practice, you can apply for a medical license. Most states also require one year of post-graduate training for licensure for US MDs and DOs. Many require three years for FMGs. Quite a few states, however, require at least two years of post-graduate training for US MDs and DOs, and one state even requires three years for US MDs, DOs and FMGs. Thus, residency is required in many cases for licensure and the two ARE related in that way- no residency; no license.

Most states don't require residency for licensure. (They require passing step III of the boards.) This is why residents can moonlight.
 
OSUdoc08 said:
Most states don't require residency for licensure. (They require passing step III of the boards.) This is why residents can moonlight.

Yet many require two years of post-grad for MD's and DOs, and most of the ones with one year reqirement require three for FMGs. You can't get that without a residency. Plus, some states require you to have already finished a year before aplying for licensure, then ask, "Are you currrently in a post-grad program and is there any reason why you will not complete it?"
 
OSUdoc08 said:
Most states don't require residency for licensure. (They require passing step III of the boards.) This is why residents can moonlight.


Actually states require 1-2 years of postgraduate training in addition to passing the boards. You do not have to actually finish the residency program however, for licensure. This is why residents, as you correctly point out, can moonlight...but interns (who don't have their 1 year of PGY training done) cannot. Most programs actually don't let you moonlight until PGY 3 or later.
 
scpod said:
Yet many require two years of post-grad for MD's and DOs, and most of the ones with one year reqirement require three for FMGs. You can't get that without a residency. Plus, some states require you to have already finished a year before aplying for licensure, then ask, "Are you currrently in a post-grad program and is there any reason why you will not complete it?"

Correct. After your internship year, you become licensed in most states. (Not completion of residency.)
 
OSUdoc08 said:
Correct. After your internship year, you become licensed in most states. (Not completion of residency.)

I never said you had to complete it, but in those states that require the completion of two years before licensure (15 of them, I believe) you will already be a PGY3 before you get licensed. (In Nevada, you may have already finished a residency if you do one EM or IM before you get your license). Why on Earth, then, would you want to quit after 3 years of residency? The point is, if you don't do most of a residency in one of those states, then you won't get a license to practice. The one-year rule is not universal.
 
scpod said:
I never said you had to complete it, but in those states that require the completion of two years before licensure (15 of them, I believe) you will already be a PGY3 before you get licensed. (In Nevada, you may have already finished a residency if you do one EM or IM before you get your license). Why on Earth, then, would you want to quit after 3 years of residency? The point is, if you don't do most of a residency in one of those states, then you won't get a license to practice. The one-year rule is not universal.

Right. That's why I said most. The majority only require the one year.
 
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