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The answer says that since R3 and C are in parallel, the voltage is 0 for both (since there is no charge on the C yet). It also says that all of the charge will flow to the C initially since it offers no resistance. What I don't understand though is how the current flows through R3.
I'm assuming as SOON as the current hits C, there will be a small potential on it, thus R3 will have the same small voltage, and I=V/R. As V gets larger in C, the current gets smaller through C and larger through R3, is that correct?
Thanks!