Certificate vs. Masters in specialties

This forum made possible through the generous support of SDN members, donors, and sponsors. Thank you.
OzDDS said:
Of which a US MD and US DDS are.. I.e. They are undergraduate medical and dental degrees representing the very first entry level degree you can obtain in that subject. Then yes, I think it should be defined as a "bachelors".

Because you said so? Because tradition says so? BECAUSE YOU COMPLETELY IGNORED THE CONTINGENT CREDIT ISSUE?

It seems you're having a hard time seeing and responding to the key distinction. Let me repeat it. Maybe you won't ignore it this time.

Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary. Contingent. Necessary.

Members don't see this ad.
 
mdub said:
Because you said so? Because tradition says so? BECAUSE YOU COMPLETELY IGNORED THE CONTINGENT CREDIT ISSUE?

Haha.. hmmm.. No, Not because I said so.. but yes. Tradition and well.. The very Definition of recieving a "Bachelor" means first/entry level degree.

Even if a previous degree is required/or is CONTINGENT. If the course that I'm teaching is an undergraduate "entry level" course.. then the first degree I should grant would by definition be a "bachelor".

When you graduate from an undergraduate med/dent school, you have in no way "mastered" the subject.. and as such should not recieve a masters or doctorate until futher study has been achieved.

You can accumulate as many credit points as you wish.. People get can aquire numerous bachelors degrees in many different subjects.. as long as they continue to study different subjects at the undergraduate level. But, If they decide to stop and focus on one subject, then after graduating with a bachelors degree in that subject, and then continue to focus on that one subject and "master" it at the graduate level, then they can get a Masters degree... and then futher study in that "focused' area can get them a "doctorate". But.. If you continue study different subjects at the undergraduate/entry level. Then you are not eligible (technically) for a graduate degree (masters/doctorate).

Maybe we should just agree to disagree. You think I don't understand.. and well... to be honest.. I can't seem to figure out why you can't understand the simple fact that it is an entry level/undergraduate degree and by very definition a "bachelor". Regardless if a previous degree is contingent upon admission.. that doesn't matter! :thumbup: Peace
 
mdub said:
BECAUSE YOU COMPLETELY IGNORED THE CONTINGENT CREDIT ISSUE?


If the US states that they are "legal equivilents" of each other. Which it does! ie.
MD = MBBS

That means one of two things:

1) Says that another countries bachelor degree is to the level of a doctorate in the US.

or

2) Says that a doctorate in the US is no greater level than a bachelors.


Legally.. It HAS to be one or the other. You can choose which ever one you prefer..
But, I'd have to say that the better definition would be #2.
.. because this is the first degree in that field that is offered. ie. an MD does not build on prior Medical knowledge and training (a previous bachelors in bio does not count as this is catagorically a different field of study)


Just because you complete a prior degree before entering medicine.. even if it is required.. that does not make it a doctorate in that field of study.
 
Members don't see this ad :)
OzDDS said:
Haha.. hmmm.. No, Not because I said so.. but yes. Tradition and well.. The very Definition of recieving a "Bachelor" means first/entry level degree.

Wrong. First, that's descriptively wrong. Observing use in the U.S. would tell you that. Second, it's overinclusive because the scope of the field is undefined. If you define the field narrowly enough, each advanced degree is also an entry-level degree.

Bachelor: A person who has completed the undergraduate curriculum of a college or university and holds a bachelor's degree.

I don't see anything about the first degree in a field, do you?

Even if a previous degree is required/or is CONTINGENT. If the course that I'm teaching is an undergraduate "entry level" course.. then the first degree I should grant would by definition be a "bachelor".

Use fewer fragments and more full sentences please.

I can think of no instance in which a bachelor degree is awarded contingent upon the completion of other, distinct bachelor-level work (particularly work that led to the award of a degree).

And I'm quite certain that you can name precisely ZERO instances of that. For instance, where's the math bachelor degree that requires a previous bachelor degree? WHERE IS IT? WHERE IS REQUIREMENT LIKE THAT TO BE FOUND ON THE ENTIRE PLANET? And if you can find even one, have fun showing us that your outlier is meaningful.

When you graduate from an undergraduate med/dent school, you have in no way "mastered" the subject..

What a truly horrendous attempt at an etymology argument. When you graduate from a Ph.D. program, you have in no way "doctored" the subject. When you graduate from a bachelor program, you have in no way "bachelored" the subject.

Furthermore, the basis for the name change is not the level of accomplishment or understanding relative to the field's body of knowledge. The basis for the U.S. naming scheme is heavily grounded on the requirement of previous work.

Then you are not eligible (technically) for a graduate degree (masters/doctorate).

You're having a massive reference point problem. (Honestly, if I knew your name, I would be certain to never to be your patient based on your pathetic reasoning skills. They're truly awful.) One can SIMULTANEOUSLY be "technically" eligible and ineligible for the LABEL if there exists more than one set of criteria for awarding the degree. You obviously know that's the case. But you have completely failed to discredit the U.S. naming scheme because your answers -- non-answers, really -- to the contingency argument are terrible.

The key distinction between the U.S. and other countries is that all programs awarding doctorates in the United States require extensive previous undergraduate work, while virtually no other countries require extensive previous undergraduate work.

Your answer is that the undergraduate work is unrelated. You're wrong. That's a bad argument. And you fail to meet them on their terms. The previous coursework would not be required if they did not feel it to be "related" in some sense. Whether something is "related" is not some objective measure, as you foolishly seem to believe. Something is "relevant" when others feel that it tends to have some importance to the other thing being considered. (That means it's either intersubjective or subjective.) And that's clearly the case here.

The only argument you have is that first-in-time makes right. Sorry, but that's not a good argument, it doesn't reflect how language develops, and it ignores structural differrences between the U.S. educational system and other educational systems. Moreover, you have precisely ZERO arguments justifying the use of old tradition over over modern U.S. tradition.

Maybe we should just agree to disagree. You think I don't understand..

I understand your argument better than you understand your argument. Maybe that's why I think it's so bad.

I can't seem to figure out why you can't understand the simple fact that it is an entry level/undergraduate degree and by very definition a "bachelor".

They are most certainly not undergraduate degrees in the U.S. That's a pretty good reason not to label them as undergraduate degrees. U.S. undergraduate degrees never require the completion undergraduate courses taken prior to starting the degree (e.g. you never have to have a bachelor degree in X to get a bachelor degree in Y; it's very simple linguistic explanation). Obviously, it's not entry-level if it requires previous collegiate entry.
 
OzDDS said:
If the US states that they are "legal equivilents" of each other. Which it does! ie.
MD = MBBS

And where does "the US [state]" that? Is it in a statute? A court case? An adminstrative ruling?

That means one of two things:

1) Says that another countries bachelor degree is to the level of a doctorate in the US.

For some purposes, yes.

or

2) Says that a doctorate in the US is no greater level than a bachelors.

That's a functional restatement of the first one. If A is at the same level as B (1 above), then B cannot be greater than A (2 above). Do you see why I have little respect for your intellect?

Legally.. It HAS to be one or the other. You can choose which ever one you prefer..

First, you don't understand **** about law. Don't even pretend. You're making yourself look foolish. (E.g. you don't seem to understand the concept of federalism as it relates to licensing.) Second, the fact that the law equates two things for a particular purpose does not make the two things similar in substance. It merely means that for the purposes sought by the law, they are similar enough. Third, legal usage does not dictate lay usage. Indeed, it would be ABSURD if that were the case. The law is replete with terms of art, judicial interpretations, and statutory constructions (even contradictory ones) that have nothing to do with usage in this case. U.S. universities are not bound by a legal use for some other purpose when naming their degrees based on ANOTHER PURPOSE.

To highlight your astonishing ignorance and the absurdity of your legal argument, let's consider some other things that are LEGALLY IDENTICAL for various purposes.

For the purpose of determining maximum allowable fine limits, jaywalking and spitting on the sidewalk are IDENTICAL in my jurisdiction. Jaywalking and spitting must be the same!

For the purpose of determining aggravating circumstances under federal sentencing guidelines, stabbing your wife with a knife is IDENTICAL to stabbing with an ice pick. Ice picks and knives must be the same!

For the purpose of determining capitalizable expenses for federal income tax purposes, putting a $50,000 swimming pool in the back yard is IDENTICAL to building a $50,000 garage. Swimming pools and garages must be identical!

an MD does not build on prior Medical knowledge and training (a previous bachelors in bio does not count as this is catagorically a different field of study)

So what? An MD is NOT an undergraduate degree in the United States and it IS a graduate degree. Any degree that requires a previous degree MUST BE a graduate degree. Thus, the bachelor name is clearly inappropriate. Moreover, an MD isn't necessarily limited by ACADEMIC FIELD considerations. It may be interpreted in terms of PROFESSIONAL FIELD considerations. I know that probably never crossed your mind, but given your performance on this thread, that doesn't surprise me. A professional field may very well be broader or narrower than the associated academic field. There is no reason to think that a medical school cannot award and name its degrees based on professional considerations. Among those considerations is the desire to have well rounded, more broadly educated, and more mature students. Requiring the completion of previous undergraduate work satisfies those goals in their estimation.

Just because you complete a prior degree before entering medicine.. even if it is required.. that does not make it a doctorate in that field of study.

It does if the university granting the degree says it is.

I already made the academic/professional field distinction. And I already demonstrated that there are considerable structural differences between the U.S. and other countries. And you HAVE NOT shown that a "proper" naming scheme should or must confine itself to a narrow understanding of what a "field" is when deciding what to call its degrees.

Finally, as a (relatively unimportant) matter of consistency, calling U.S. physicians, for instance, who earned MDs "doctors" is more consistent than foreign countries calling their physicians "doctors" when their degree is a bachelor degree. Oh, what's that you say? Are you saying that professional naming convensions and other factors not strictly related to the contours of an academic field are relevant to naming conventions? Yeah, I think so, too.
 
mdub said:
And where does "the US [state]" that? Is it in a statute? A court case? An adminstrative ruling?



For some purposes, yes.



That's a functional restatement of the first one. If A is at the same level as B (1 above), then B cannot be greater than A (2 above). Do you see why I have little respect for your intellect?



First, you don't understand **** about law. Don't even pretend. You're making yourself look foolish. (E.g. you don't seem to understand the concept of federalism as it relates to licensing.) Second, the fact that the law equates two things for a particular purpose does not make the two things similar in substance. It merely means that for the purposes sought by the law, they are similar enough. Third, legal usage does not dictate lay usage. Indeed, it would be ABSURD if that were the case. The law is replete with terms of art, judicial interpretations, and statutory constructions (even contradictory ones) that have nothing to do with usage in this case. U.S. universities are not bound by a legal use for some other purpose when naming their degrees based on ANOTHER PURPOSE.

To highlight your astonishing ignorance and the absurdity of your legal argument, let's consider some other things that are LEGALLY IDENTICAL for various purposes.

For the purpose of determining maximum allowable fine limits, jaywalking and spitting on the sidewalk are IDENTICAL in my jurisdiction. Jaywalking and spitting must be the same!

For the purpose of determining aggravating circumstances under federal sentencing guidelines, stabbing your wife with a knife is IDENTICAL to stabbing with an ice pick. Ice picks and knives must be the same!

For the purpose of determining capitalizable expenses for federal income tax purposes, putting a $50,000 swimming pool in the back yard is IDENTICAL to building a $50,000 garage. Swimming pools and garages must be identical!



So what? An MD is NOT an undergraduate degree in the United States and it IS a graduate degree. Any degree that requires a previous degree MUST BE a graduate degree. Thus, the bachelor name is clearly inappropriate. Moreover, an MD isn't necessarily limited by ACADEMIC FIELD considerations. It may be interpreted in terms of PROFESSIONAL FIELD considerations. I know that probably never crossed your mind, but given your performance on this thread, that doesn't surprise me. A professional field may very well be broader or narrower than the associated academic field. There is no reason to think that a medical school cannot award and name its degrees based on professional considerations. Among those considerations is the desire to have well rounded, more broadly educated, and more mature students. Requiring the completion of previous undergraduate work satisfies those goals in their estimation.



It does if the university granting the degree says it is.

I already made the academic/professional field distinction. And I already demonstrated that there are considerable structural differences between the U.S. and other countries. And you HAVE NOT shown that a "proper" naming scheme should or must confine itself to a narrow understanding of what a "field" is when deciding what to call its degrees.

Finally, as a (relatively unimportant) matter of consistency, calling U.S. physicians, for instance, who earned MDs "doctors" is more consistent than foreign countries calling their physicians "doctors" when their degree is a bachelor degree. Oh, what's that you say? Are you saying that professional naming convensions and other factors not strictly related to the contours of an academic field are relevant to naming conventions? Yeah, I think so, too.

You have way to much time on your hands. Put the laptop down, go outside, and live a little bit instead of trying to win an internet messageboard argument.
 
Nice work, I liked it mdub. Don't let him steal your fire. :thumbup:
 
:sleep: :sleep: :sleep: :sleep: :sleep: :sleep:

The longer the post, the less people bother reading it.
 
mdub said:
1. The fact that the law equates two things for a particular purpose does not make the two things similar in substance. It merely means that for the purposes sought by the law, they are similar enough.

2. So what? An MD is NOT an undergraduate degree in the United States and it IS a graduate degree.

3. Any degree that requires a previous degree MUST BE a graduate degree. Thus, the bachelor name is clearly inappropriate.

4. Finally, as a (relatively unimportant) matter of consistency, calling U.S. physicians, for instance, who earned MDs "doctors" is more consistent than foreign countries calling their physicians "doctors" when their degree is a bachelor degree.

1. Just like the 3 year DDS degree you can aquire at UOP in Sanfran and the 4 year DMD degree you can recieve at Harvard. Yes, they may have differences in curriculum and length of training and different requirements for admission. But you're right.. for purposes sought by the law (for the purpose of licensure).. they are similar enough. Same goes for the BDS which is also a "legal equivalent undergraduate dental degree". legally (for "licensing purposes") BDS = DDS = DMD.

2. Again, refer to the university's website. Looks like it says "undergraduate" to me.

Undergraduate MD degree

- Why don't you email the university and explain to them why what they are teaching is really "graduate" medicine and not "undergraduate" medicine.

3. How about you then email ANU and Oxford Universities and tell them that you think that they are naming their medical degrees incorrectly.

ANU Bachelor of Medicine degree that requires a previous bachelors degree for admission

Oxford Bachelor of Medicine degree that requires a previous bachelor degree for admission

Funny enough.. Some of the US MD and DDS degree programs in the US do not require a previous bachelors degrees. So, are these exceptions not graduate degrees? :rolleyes:
UNLV DDS - Previous Bachelors not required

Wisconsin MD program - "considers" applications from people without previous bachelors

Here's more: -> US Med students with no bachelors <-


4. Then why don't you email these foreign doctors who are have ONLY "Bachelors degrees" and tell them that their degrees are not as good as the MD degrees that are granted in the US and how they are not technically "real doctors". :laugh:

Cheif of Pediatric Neurosurgery at Yale

Cheif of Plastics Burn Unit at Johns Hopkins

Prof of Rheumatology at Johns Hopkins

Prof. of Pediatric dentistry at UCLA children's
 
OzDDS said:
If the US states that they are "legal equivilents" of each other. Which it does! ie.
MD = MBBS

mdub said:
And where does "the US [state]" that? Is it in a statute? A court case? An adminstrative ruling?

In order to obtain a license to practice medicine in the US.. you have to apply to each US state board of medicine for a medical license. (Yes...Even if you have a US-MD)

Be my guest and go contact ANY US state medical board and ask them if an MBBS = MD and they will tell you.. "YES", for the purpose of obtaining a licence to practice medicine they are the same thing. As long as you have (USMLE I + II and have ECMFG certification.. ie. documentation of legal equivilency) MBBS=MD.


PHY-993
Use of the M. D. Title: The Wisconsin Medical Society: 1) defends the use of the M.D. title by physicians who graduated with an M.B.B.S. and are licensed to practice medicine in Wisconsin; and, 2) believes in clarifying Wisconsin statute so that International Medical Graduates licensed to practice as medical doctors can use the title M.D. (HOD,0495)


Federation of State Medical Boards
http://www.fsmb.org/pdf/FCVS_Physician_Initial_App.pdf

wikipedia

Medical School

MBBS is the British equivalent of the American M.D.
 
I still can't figure out what you guys are talking about.
 
Top