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Hi-
I have traditionally treated PID with a "gram and a shot" (Rocephin 250mg IM and Azithromycin 1g po) followed by 10 days of Doxy. My hospital has recently disallowed nurses mixing ANY meds resulting in Ceftriaxone available only in IV form in quantities of 1g.
I recall from med school a concept of antibiotic "overshoot" but I have lost all detail.
Can you drug gurus give me a cogent explanation for this phenomenon, or alternatively, can you give a good non-economic reason why the IM route is superior?
Thanks.
I have traditionally treated PID with a "gram and a shot" (Rocephin 250mg IM and Azithromycin 1g po) followed by 10 days of Doxy. My hospital has recently disallowed nurses mixing ANY meds resulting in Ceftriaxone available only in IV form in quantities of 1g.
I recall from med school a concept of antibiotic "overshoot" but I have lost all detail.
Can you drug gurus give me a cogent explanation for this phenomenon, or alternatively, can you give a good non-economic reason why the IM route is superior?
Thanks.