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This question is for some of the more experienced people here: if a person's schizophrenia is well-controlled (excellent social support, compliance, no illicit drug use), how much cognitive decline is there on average as compared to poorly controlled (same, slightly less, much less, barely there)?
How do you explain people like Elyn Saks? I know one of her videos showed her rx botles and she is on clozapine. Is that part of it? She had her share of poor compliance though. Or was her baseline so high that the decline not as noticeable?
For anyone not familiar with her: Elyn Saks - Wikipedia
Is schizophrenia decline like seizure-related decline? Meaning, if we minimize the episodes is the long term damage is reduced? Or do we even know? Unless we are only studying injectables, it seems nearly impossible to know about medication compliance amongst large groups of higher functioning patients?
Thank you in advance for sharing your wisdom.
How do you explain people like Elyn Saks? I know one of her videos showed her rx botles and she is on clozapine. Is that part of it? She had her share of poor compliance though. Or was her baseline so high that the decline not as noticeable?
For anyone not familiar with her: Elyn Saks - Wikipedia
Is schizophrenia decline like seizure-related decline? Meaning, if we minimize the episodes is the long term damage is reduced? Or do we even know? Unless we are only studying injectables, it seems nearly impossible to know about medication compliance amongst large groups of higher functioning patients?
Thank you in advance for sharing your wisdom.