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COMLEX III and DO in MD program question
Started by Anti-PD1
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I'm pretty much certain that a DO must take Comlex level 3 to get a license as far as (all) state laws are concerned. They must be one of the only people in the nation to take Step 2 CS and Comlex PE. Are they insane? I can only recall 1 person on here who has shared that he did so to specifically go to a specific program that hates DOs.Asking for a friend. This person has taken COMLEX I, II and all the USMLE exams. They are attending an ACGME residency, it's an MD residency.
Is there any reason for this person to take COMLEX III, in regards to requirements or board certification?
I'm pretty much certain that a DO must take Comlex level 3 to get a license as far as (all) state laws are concerned. They must be one of the only people in the nation to take Step 2 CS and Comlex PE. Are they insane? I can only recall 1 person on here who has shared that he did so to specifically go to a specific program that hates DOs.
Lol, yeah, I think it's just Florida and Pennsylvania that would require that right? He has taken Step 2 CS and Comlex PE
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I think you are confusing the Resolution 42 topic (aka must do an osteopathic intern year or jump through some hoops) and this situation. He has to take Level 3 as it is how he becomes a licensed DO. There is no reason to take Step 3 or Step 2 CS.Lol, yeah, I think it's just Florida and Pennsylvania that would require that right? He has taken Step 2 CS and Comlex PE
Any chance you can link me something related to that? Is it state specific? Never heard that in more than 10 years lurking this forum lol. Learn something new every day.@Neopolymath . He/ we can take step 3 and negate level 3 and get licensed trough that. I know an anesthesiologist who did just this in order to avoid all things DO related.
Probably not worth it for anyone but a person crazy enough to take CS.