What does it mean if a contract says that your total compensation can not be in excess of fair market value?
It means don't sign that contract.
That's a good question for your prospective employer. Sounds like a way for them to get you to work for free. Perhaps you should have an attorney familiar with physician contracts and employment law look at it, too.Why not? Say they offer a high base salary and then that is in the contract. Does it not refer to receiving excess charges in billing? Not clear to me
That's a good question for your prospective employer. Sounds like a way for them to get you to work for free. Perhaps you should have an attorney familiar with physician contracts and employment law look at it, too.
A colleague referenced this,
“Conservative physician employers may cap total compensation paid through an employment agreement at the 90th percentile of reported survey data. This, however, does not mean that physician compensation at or in excess of the 90th percentile cannot be fair market value (FMV). Metrics such as services provided, experience, total hours worked and production levels must be collectively considered. If a physician's hours and/or productivity are in excess of the 90th percentile of reported data, it may be reasonable and within FMV to pay compensation levels above the 90th percentile.”
This is a good summary.FMV restrains such as this are common in employment contracts to ensure employers have unilateral flexibility to address compensation to comport to changes in healthcare regulations or dramatic shifts in compensation being paid across the country.
The primary reason that this clause in present is to address the Stark regulation and the Anti Kickback statute which restrict how employers compensate physicians. To remain compliant with these laws, an employer must pay compensation that is considered Fair Market Value (which cannot take into account the volume or value of referrals). The employer must also ensure that the payment structure is commercially reasonable.
Long and short, you aren't going to be able to negotiate this language away but you should be able to address it by tying compensation to survey percentiles if you are concerned.
Fair Market Value stuff can get tricky. One poster on here described having a dirt cheap lease of ~$200/month with a health system. Depending on the square footage and going rate in the local area of medical office space, if that is a true financial steal, its possible that difference of market rate and actual lease rate could be considered a kick back as means to garner/induce referrals...
This is very interesting and good to know. Obviously if nobody whistleblows everything is hunkydory, but if some regulatory is putting you under a microscope inadvertent "good deals" of this type becomes problematic.
Thanks for the reply. I'm sort of interested in an example at the extreme end. If a hospital has an inpatient psych unit they want/need to keep open, but their psychiatrist(s) are leaving, how does Fair Market Value effect who they can hire. There is a hospital in the boondocks south of me that is currently staffed only by locums psychiatrists. They've been trying to hire a psychiatrist for at least the last 2 years and have been staffing with locums docs and I'd imagine paying through the nose for them. If a qualified psychiatrist showed interest in the job and insisted on a salary above the 75th%ile or above the median...for example an extra $50K above...could the hospital justify this pay given the "market" is basically speaking and dictating this is the cost of an employed psychiatrist for this hospital in this city? I'm sure they're paying the locums companies drastically more than this to keep a psychiatrist on the unit, and the hospital would probably be happy to pay even a large premium for an employed psychiatrist who intends to stay at the job and will not just be gone in 3 months. It seems Fair Market Value could drastically undervalue an employed psychiatrist in such as situation and prevents both the psychiatrist and hospital from coming to a fair economic agreement.Nexus,
Hospital systems are holding fast at the 75th percentile because of guidance from the OIG that pay in excess of this can raise issues with the FMV of the transaction. That said, there are acceptable deviations from this as payment above the 75th% if often necessary. I will give you an example:
You bring on a new cardiologist for $450,000 guarantee for two years. The cardiologist isn't generating that many wRVUs in the first two years as he ramps up his business even if he is in clinic 5 days a week. If you were to take the guaranteed salary and divide by the wRVUs, the resulting $/wRVU would be in excess of the 90th%. Outside of this, most examples of 90th% pay is either [1] paid because of wRVUs generated in excess of the 90th% or [2] preeminent luminaries that you pay a premium for and the FMV is contingent on a multi factorial analysis.
Happy to discuss further if you want to PM me.
Yep. Fair market value isn't really about the local pond. Its about not being an outlier for the whole ocean.It seems Fair Market Value could drastically undervalue an employed psychiatrist in such as situation and prevents both the psychiatrist and hospital from coming to a fair economic agreement.
It seems Fair Market Value could drastically undervalue an employed psychiatrist in such as situation and prevents both the psychiatrist and hospital from coming to a fair economic agreement.
TRUTH. Good summary.Duh. This happens ALL THE TIME. In fact, this happens MOST of the time with many facility based jobs that are chronically short staffed and have high turnover.
There are people who would fill these locum positions on a temporary basis, and it may or may not cost the hospital more depending. But for a variety of administrative reasons (including FMV based employee salary offer, government salary caps, etc etc) fully employed salaries are not matching actual market value, which causes shortage.
This is not different from any other pricing control causing a shortage. Of course, in our field, when there's a shortage, what ends up happening is 1) patients don't get hospitalized and treated in a timely way, so they go into the criminal justice system or come around to the ER. 2) they kill themselves or overdose on drugs. 3) underqualified (cheaper) clinicians get hired to deal with highly complex cases and mistreat them with inappropriate polypharmacy.
Nobody cares. The fact that there's a day to day shortage is not typically able to overcome administrative hurdles. To overcome admin hurdles you usually need advisory from the above not below.
Outside of taking on medical director or other administrative duties, are there any other options to get paid above the median rate? Is there an accepted variance from the salary survey company median number? For example, say the hospital wants to pay every physician at the 75th %ile, is it common or acceptable (i.e. hospital not fearing government investigation/fines for perceived kickback) to pay hard to staff specialties at the 80th or 85th %ile?
Outside of taking on medical director or other administrative duties, are there any other options to get paid above the median rate? Is there an accepted variance from the salary survey company median number? For example, say the hospital wants to pay every physician at the 75th %ile, is it common or acceptable (i.e. hospital not fearing government investigation/fines for perceived kickback) to pay hard to staff specialties at the 80th or 85th %ile?
True, but if they aren't earning what you're paying them (or at least close) you run the risk of drawing the government's attention.You can pay physicians whatever you want.
True, but if they aren't earning what you're paying them (or at least close) you run the risk of drawing the government's attention
This is a confusing question. Trivially, if there's an 80%tile it means by definition 20% of the facilities are paying more.
The original question has to do with FMV in a contract. Many (most?) facility contracts do not explicitly contain FMV clauses.
Reading up about the Anti-Kickback Statute, Stark Law, and whichever CFR statute, which is where FMV is relevant, an average doc employed by a hospital or company should be able to be paid literally anything as long as they're not being paid an egregious amount for the purpose of running up charges to Medicare or other federal programs (via referrals, tests, etc.) It seems to me that FMV fear-mongering is an advertising tactic by MD compensation consultants (such as the one posting here), data warehouses (MGMA), and the corporate healthcare industry (who would love to freeze physician comp by paying everyone at the median per RVU.)Sorry I'll try to clarify. I'll use my employer as an example. It's a hospital with many employed doctors across lots of specialties. I haven't found any exceptions, all doctors are getting the median RVU rate (for their specialty based on national physician salary survey data) and almost all are on an RVU only contract with no base salary. For psychiatry the median RVU rate is about 75th%ile...which is about $65 and something like 3800 RVUs per year. My hospital doesn't explicitly have FMV language in contracts, but frequently mentions the FMV when sticking to the median pay rates during pay negotiation. My question is basically is there an industry accepted way to determine FMV besides just sticking to the median? How much variance up from the this rate is reasonable to negotiate for...or how much weight should the hospital's argument about avoiding government investigation carry? Is a psychiatrist getting paid at the 80th%ile RVU rate for producing the median number of RVUs (3800/year) realistically going to bring an investigation to the hospital?
Another issue I've learned about recently is that hospitals get much larger facility fees than doctors in private practice. This is why our cardiology group for example sold out to the hospital. Doing echocardiograms in the office was reimbursed so much lower they'd be losing money... but the hospital facility fee is so much higher echos are still a money maker. I've recently seen several posts on social media reemphasizing the amount of money a doctor brings into a hospital outside of physician fees by ordering labs, imaging, operating room use, and just patients being admitted to a bed makes money for the hospital. Doctors do not get any of this money. The government and hospitals almost seem complicit in paying large facility fees to hospitals and "threatening" hospitals with investigation and fines if they use the facility fees to pay doctors larger salaries. So why is the facility fee so large and why haven't physician fees increased instead? Hospital lobbyists? What can we as physicians do to change this? I'd imagine hospitals are happy to have this pay ceiling in place, because they can keep pay levels down and shift blame to the government, while still making money from the physician. These kind of price controls seem like they should be illegal.
FMV takes into consideration all psychiatry pay. So the doc at the VA, the doc at the community mental health center, the doc at the large "non-profit health system", and private practice taking insurance and the cash only doctors who fill out the surveys, etc. So yes, there are doctors making more, but they are in different venues then the non-profit health system. A health system isn't going to care enough to pay one psychiatrist more to go above the FMV. Collectively all of them don't want to, because they don't want to deal with a ton of contract re-negotiations. Part of the issue of FMV for psych is the diversity of practice locations that the other specialties don't have. Other specialists don't have Community mental health, or prison/jail jobs pulling down the salary median.This is a confusing question. Trivially, if there's an 80%tile it means by definition 20% of the facilities are paying more.
The original question has to do with FMV in a contract. Many (most?) facility contracts do not explicitly contain FMV clauses.
Yes.Reading up about the Anti-Kickback Statute, Stark Law, and whichever CFR statute, which is where FMV is relevant, an average doc employed by a hospital or company should be able to be paid literally anything as long as they're not being paid an egregious amount for the purpose of running up charges to Medicare or other federal programs (via referrals, tests, etc.) It seems to me that FMV fear-mongering is an advertising tactic by MD compensation consultants (such as the one posting here), data warehouses (MGMA), and the corporate healthcare industry (who would love to freeze physician comp by paying everyone at the median per RVU.)
Sorry I'll try to clarify. I'll use my employer as an example. It's a hospital with many employed doctors across lots of specialties. I haven't found any exceptions, all doctors are getting the median RVU rate (for their specialty based on national physician salary survey data) and almost all are on an RVU only contract with no base salary. For psychiatry the median RVU rate is about 75th%ile...which is about $65 and something like 3800 RVUs per year. My hospital doesn't explicitly have FMV language in contracts, but frequently mentions the FMV when sticking to the median pay rates during pay negotiation. My question is basically is there an industry accepted way to determine FMV besides just sticking to the median? How much variance up from the this rate is reasonable to negotiate for...or how much weight should the hospital's argument about avoiding government investigation carry? Is a psychiatrist getting paid at the 80th%ile RVU rate for producing the median number of RVUs (3800/year) realistically going to bring an investigation to the hospital?
Another issue I've learned about recently is that hospitals get much larger facility fees than doctors in private practice. This is why our cardiology group for example sold out to the hospital. Doing echocardiograms in the office was reimbursed so much lower they'd be losing money... but the hospital facility fee is so much higher echos are still a money maker. I've recently seen several posts on social media reemphasizing the amount of money a doctor brings into a hospital outside of physician fees by ordering labs, imaging, operating room use, and just patients being admitted to a bed makes money for the hospital. Doctors do not get any of this money. The government and hospitals almost seem complicit in paying large facility fees to hospitals and "threatening" hospitals with investigation and fines if they use the facility fees to pay doctors larger salaries. So why is the facility fee so large and why haven't physician fees increased instead? Hospital lobbyists? What can we as physicians do to change this? I'd imagine hospitals are happy to have this pay ceiling in place, because they can keep pay levels down and shift blame to the government, while still making money from the physician. These kind of price controls seem like they should be illegal.