confusing part II question

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myra1972

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200. best scale for gingival index
a. ratio
b. nominal
c. interval
Plz. explain

203. Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog

204. patient #8 and#9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to
why is it the answer is a????

211. for bevelling gingical margin, what not to use
a. hatches
b. gingival margin trimmer
c. thin taper bur
I thought it was hatches???

243. which of the following agent is used for HIV infection
a. acyclovir
b. zidovudine

245. which of the followin is the MOST common postoperative problem associated with mandibular sagittal split osteotomies
a. devitalization of teeth
b. nuerosensory disturbances

255. an x-radiation dose of 4Gy adminstered locally to a patient's arm is MOST likely to cause
a. erythema
b. bone marow death
c. carcinoma of the skin
d. acute radiation syndrome

256. biologic changes in the aging patient affect both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of drugs, which in turn, are manifested as each of teh folowing EXCEPT one, which one is this exception
a. decreased renal excretion
b. increase plasma protein binding
c. increased half lives of some drugs
d. decreased volume of distribution and sequestration of drug in body fat.
This questions really bring out different answer from everyone is it b? c? d? plz. explain

293. smooth muscle relaxation is caused by which of the following drugs
a. prazocin
b. atropine
c. theophylline
d. amphetamine
Is it c???

314. opiod agonist act by
a. incrase pain threshold
d. acting as Mu receptor agonist


320. CHIP
a. use in perio diagnosis only
b. use in children
I really don't know what is the meaning of CHIP!

321. postural hypotension is a common complaint of pateinet who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles


Thanks a lot.
 
myra1972 said:
200. best scale for gingival index
a. ratio
b. nominal
c. interval
Plz. explain

**A**

203. Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog

204. patient #8 and#9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to
why is it the answer is a????

211. for bevelling gingical margin, what not to use
a. hatches
b. gingival margin trimmer
c. thin taper bur
I thought it was hatches???

243. which of the following agent is used for HIV infection
a. acyclovir
b. zidovudine

245. which of the followin is the MOST common postoperative problem associated with mandibular sagittal split osteotomies
a. devitalization of teeth
b. nuerosensory disturbances

255. an x-radiation dose of 4Gy adminstered locally to a patient's arm is MOST likely to cause
a. erythema
b. bone marow death
c. carcinoma of the skin
d. acute radiation syndrome

**A**

256. biologic changes in the aging patient affect both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of drugs, which in turn, are manifested as each of teh folowing EXCEPT one, which one is this exception
a. decreased renal excretion
b. increase plasma protein binding
c. increased half lives of some drugs
d. decreased volume of distribution and sequestration of drug in body fat.
This questions really bring out different answer from everyone is it b? c? d? plz. explain

293. smooth muscle relaxation is caused by which of the following drugs
a. prazocin
b. atropine
c. theophylline
d. amphetamine
Is it c???

314. opiod agonist act by
a. incrase pain threshold
d. acting as Mu receptor agonist


320. CHIP
a. use in perio diagnosis only
b. use in children
I really don't know what is the meaning of CHIP!

321. postural hypotension is a common complaint of pateinet who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles


Thanks a lot.

plz help me with some other question
 
myra1972 said:
plz help me with some other question
A-7 Antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. reattachment
b. regeneration

A-8 in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior crossbite of about 2mm, the buccal cusp of posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true

B-2 which of the following is LEAST useful in endo diagnosis pf children
a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test

c-11 with mandibular bilateral extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rest do not fit

c-12 distal palatal termination of max. complete denture base by
a. vibrating line
b. posterior palatal seal
plz. differentiate between the two.
 
A-7 Antibiotics help to reduce pockets by
a. reattachment
b. regeneration
Choice A if antibiotics alone
A-8 in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior crossbite of about 2mm, the buccal cusp of posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true
i think it is c but not sure because in lingualized occlusion and or monoplane balanced with non anatmic teeth in cross bite the teeth are cuspless for crossbite ,class 2 or 3 . in this case it says only buccal is flat if it said both r flat then both r true
B-2 which of the following is LEAST useful in endo diagnosis pf children
a. percussion
b. palpation
c. electric test
d. thermal test

choice C kids can not differntiate in EPT
c-11 with mandibular bilateral extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rest do not fit
Choice A no indirect retention

c-12 distal palatal termination of max. complete denture base by
a. vibrating line
b. posterior palatal seal
B post palatal seal
myra i see the questions on top. i will come back and see if i can anser those questions
correct me if i am wrong
thanks
 
correct me if i am wrong
myra1972 said:
200. best scale for gingival index
a. ratio
b. nominal
c. interval
ANS A(exp dont know)

203. Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog
is it sturger weber syndrome??what is midface ecto.

204. patient #8 and#9 PFM is little darker than adjacent teeth but is clinically acceptable, what is treatment you would propose except one
a. redo PFM
b. indirect resin bond to
c. porcelain bond to
ANS A because taht is not needed since it is acceptable clinically why tp redo when u can do patch work

211. for bevelling gingical margin, what not to use
a. hatches
b. gingival margin trimmer
c. thin taper bur
thin taper bur is the answer

243. which of the following agent is used for HIV infection
a. acyclovir
b. zidovudine
ANS b

245. which of the followin is the MOST common postoperative problem associated with mandibular sagittal split osteotomies
a. devitalization of teeth
b. nuerosensory disturbances
correct me -inf alv nerve is affected-supply teeth so
ANS a

255. an x-radiation dose of 4Gy adminstered locally to a patient's arm is MOST likely to cause
a. erythema
b. bone marow death
c. carcinoma of the skin
d. acute radiation syndrome
ANS a

256. biologic changes in the aging patient affect both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of drugs, which in turn, are manifested as each of teh folowing EXCEPT one, which one is this exception
a. decreased renal excretion
b. increase plasma protein binding
c. increased half lives of some drugs
d. decreased volume of distribution and sequestration of drug in body fat.
ANS D
i think because as renal exc decreases Inc level of drug in blood -more binding and also inc half like metabolism as there is no free drug available-check this out


293. smooth muscle relaxation is caused by which of the following drugs
a. prazocin
b. atropine
c. theophylline
d. amphetamine
theo-bronchodialator so c

314. opiod agonist act by
a. incrase pain threshold
d. acting as Mu receptor agonist
ANS d


320. CHIP
a. use in perio diagnosis only
b. use in children
I really don't know what is the meaning of CHIP!

321. postural hypotension is a common complaint of pateinet who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles
is it a

Thanks a lot.
 
myra1972 said:
plz help me with some other question
thanks a lot, and I have some confusing question, pls. help me

To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed
a. over the crest of the mandibular ridge
b. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge
Is it B

3. The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
a. the effective dose to the toxic dose
b. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to the effective dose for 50 of animals

7. with the development of gingivits, the sulcus becomes predominantly populted by
a. gram positive microorganism
b. gram negative microorganism

12. carious lesion are most likely to develop if a patient has
a. high lactobacillus ccount
b. saliva with low buffering capacity
c. plaque on his tooth
d. lactic acid i his mouth

17. a cast post and core is used to
a. strengthen a weakened tooth
b. provide reteention for a cst crown
c. both

19. normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. non-keratinizes
2. squamous
3. stratified

a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3

21. when used for conscious sedation, nitrous oxide may
1. produce sigs of inherent myocardial depression
2. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action
3. cause the patient to sweat
4. produce numbness of the extremeties
a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3
c. 2 4
d. 4 only
e. all of the above

34. a lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in
a. maximum intercuspation
b. initial contact

40. following root planning, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following
a. free nerve ending
b. odontoblastic process

43. the best way to protcet the abutments of a Class I removable partial dentre from the negative effect of the additional load applied to them is by
a. splinting abutments with adjaent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extension
c. placing distal rest on distal abutments
d. using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extension

46. The tooth preparation for porcelain veneer must create a
a. rough surface for improved bonding
b. space for a[ppropriate thickness of thevenneering material
c. margin well below the gingival creat
d. definite finish line

52. the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam for class 2 pedo molar teeth is
a. insufficient depth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
c. lien angle too sharp

53. the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic

54. where is the gold directed on an MO onlay sprue
a. faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor

58. a periodontal exam of a patient refered for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b. there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
Pls. explain

62. Meperidine overdose is treted with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine

65. collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduce the shape of the beam
c. reduce the radiation to the patient
d. all of the above

61. in its classic form, serial extraction is best applied to patients with class I occlusion with crowding of
a. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
b. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
c. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 70% overbite
d. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite

80. in a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which muscle is penetrated by the needle
a. buccinator
b. mylohyoid
c. superior constrictor
d. masstere
e. medial pterygoid
 
i agree with sonibun answers too. sonibun periochip is
Another product approved by the FDA for the treatment of periodontal disease is called PerioChip®. PerioChip® is a biodegradable chip made of hydrolyzed gelatin impregnated with 2.5 mg of the antibiotic chlorhexidine gluconate. Chlorhexidine gluconate is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that kills bacteria by destroying the bacterial cell membrane resulting in cell lysis. Chlorhexidine is released from the PerioChip® in a biphasic manner with 40% being released in the first 24 hours following placement and the remaining 60% released over the following seven to 10 days. The PerioChip®, a 4 mm x 5 mm x 350 µm chip about the size of a baby's fingernail, is inserted directly into the infected periodontal pocket. Perichip® is intended to be used as an adjunct to patient periodontal treatment that includes scaling and root planing and good oral hygiene.
hope this helps
 
To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed
a. over the crest of the mandibular ridge
b. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge
A

3. The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
a. the effective dose to the toxic dose
b. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to the effective dose for 50 of animals

therapeutic index is the effective dose of a drug for 50% of the population (ED50) divided by the lethal dose for 50% of the population (LD50).
i think choice a but i am not sure

7. with the development of gingivits, the sulcus becomes predominantly populted by
a. gram positive microorganism
b. gram negative microorganism
choice b

12. carious lesion are most likely to develop if a patient has
a. high lactobacillus ccount
b. saliva with low buffering capacity
c. plaque on his tooth
d. lactic acid i his mouth
choice b

17. a cast post and core is used to
a. strengthen a weakened tooth
b. provide reteention for a cst crown
c. both
c

19. normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. non-keratinizes
2. squamous
3. stratified

a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3
choice A


34. a lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in
a. maximum intercuspation
b. initial contact
choice B

40. following root planning, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following
a. free nerve ending
b. odontoblastic process
choiceA

43. the best way to protcet the abutments of a Class I removable partial dentre from the negative effect of the additional load applied to them is by
a. splinting abutments with adjaent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extension
c. placing distal rest on distal abutments
d. using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extension
choice C placing rests adjacent to edentulous areas

46. The tooth preparation for porcelain veneer must create a
a. rough surface for improved bonding
b. space for a[ppropriate thickness of thevenneering material
c. margin well below the gingival creat
d. definite finish line
choice D

52. the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam for class 2 pedo molar teeth is
a. insufficient depth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
c. lien angle too sharp
choice C
53. the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
choice c in some cases due to gummy smile or high lip line the pink acrylic can mimick as gingiva

54. where is the gold directed on an MO onlay sprue
a. faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
choice A

58. a periodontal exam of a patient refered for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b. there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
Pls. explain i did not get this question

62. Meperidine overdose is treted with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
choiceA

65. collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduce the shape of the beam
c. reduce the radiation to the patient
d. all of the above
choice D

61. in its classic form, serial extraction is best applied to patients with class I occlusion with crowding of
a. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
b. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
c. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 70% overbite
d. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite
choice B
80. in a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which muscle is penetrated by the needle
a. buccinator
b. mylohyoid
c. superior constrictor
d. masstere
e. medial pterygoid
choice E
 
23. the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good, after the proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first sttements is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong

27. after perio surgery, re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week
b. to the dentin or cementum
c. both

46. what is the purpose of leveling the curve of spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeeth
d. change arch diameter

77. which one of the followings is not a characteristics of additioal type silicone
a. impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporized and result in distortion
b. very stable, can be stored for more than a week
c. can have multiple pours
d. high accuracy
e. may release H2 in some materials

90. which of the following is not an advantage ofresin based GIC over water based GIC
a. better flouride release
b. btter bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier of manipulation

112. a patient is taking dicumarol has most likely a history of
a. angina
b. coronary infarct
c. congestive heart failure
d. cor pulmonale

121. which one of the injetions most likely have positive inspiration
a. IA 10-15%
b. akisinp
c. infraorbital
d. Gow gate 2%
e. mental nerve

130. a dentist who uses 5hema fopr clinical situations most likely experiences which of the following conditions for the clinician
a. contact dermatitis
b. arthritis
c. arthus reaction
d. delayed hypersensitivity
d. anaphylaxis

142. what kind of patients cannot be treated with b-blocker as anti-arrhthmic medications
a. patients with angina
b. patients with hypertension
c. patients with asthma
d. patients with COPD

183. with amodified widman flap you mostly reduce bone by
a. adapt the flap margin
b. osseous restructuring
c. removal of infected osseous tissue
d. removel of malignancy tissue

198. all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
a. esthetics
b. bond strength
c. wear resistance
d. coefficient of thermal expansion
 
23. the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good, after the proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
a. both statements are correct
b. the first statement is correct but not the second
c. the first sttements is wrong, but second statement is correct
d. both statements are wrong
choice b as the bifurcation is usually in middle third and cannot be used as abutment
27. after perio surgery, re-attachment can happen
a. as soon as in a week
b. to the dentin or cementum
c. both
choice A

46. what is the purpose of leveling the curve of spee
a. correct open bite
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeeth
d. change arch diameter
choice A

i will come back and try to answer rest of them
 
77. which one of the followings is not a characteristics of additioal type silicone
a. impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporized and result in distortion
b. very stable, can be stored for more than a week
c. can have multiple pours
d. high accuracy
e. may release H2 in some materials
choice A

90. which of the following is not an advantage ofresin based GIC over water based GIC
a. better flouride release
b. btter bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier of manipulation
not sure

112. a patient is taking dicumarol has most likely a history of
a. angina
b. coronary infarct
c. congestive heart failure
d. cor pulmonale
A

121. which one of the injetions most likely have positive inspiration
a. IA 10-15%
b. akisinp
c. infraorbital
d. Gow gate 2%
e. mental nerve
A

130. a dentist who uses 5hema fopr clinical situations most likely experiences which of the following conditions for the clinician
a. contact dermatitis
b. arthritis
c. arthus reaction
d. delayed hypersensitivity
d. anaphylaxis
A

142. what kind of patients cannot be treated with b-blocker as anti-arrhthmic medications
a. patients with angina
b. patients with hypertension
c. patients with asthma
d. patients with COPD
C

183. with amodified widman flap you mostly reduce bone by
a. adapt the flap margin
b. osseous restructuring
c. removal of infected osseous tissue
d. removel of malignancy tissue
B
198. all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
a. esthetics
b. bond strength
c. wear resistance
d. coefficient of thermal expansion
C but i am not very sure
 
5. class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This migh have beesn caused by which of the following
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band

10. probiong depth can vary based on the degree of inflammtion frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first is true, the second is false
d. the first is false, the second is true

11. a major advantage to patietn treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believd to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. progressive loading

12. an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip, an examination disclose a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region, the patient first notcied this swelling three weeks ago, radiograph indicated a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiatting pattern of trabeculae in the mass, which of the following is thhe MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

17. which of the following explains why the z plasty techniques used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less trauamtic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it increased the effect of scar contracture
e. it allows for closure by second intention

18. which of the following MOST accurately explain how biofeedback works
a. reduce cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathtic nervous system
c. it relax and tos some extent hypnotize the patient
d. it distract and engages the patient in coping active task
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
what is the meaning of biofeedback???

19. which of the following describe clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall stynthesis
b. does not penetrate well into ony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. it is effective against gram negative bacteria only
e. it effective against most anaerobes.
 
anjali_45 said:
i agree with sonibun answers too. sonibun periochip is
Another product approved by the FDA for the treatment of periodontal disease is called PerioChip®. PerioChip® is a biodegradable chip made of hydrolyzed gelatin impregnated with 2.5 mg of the antibiotic chlorhexidine gluconate. Chlorhexidine gluconate is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that kills bacteria by destroying the bacterial cell membrane resulting in cell lysis. Chlorhexidine is released from the PerioChip® in a biphasic manner with 40% being released in the first 24 hours following placement and the remaining 60% released over the following seven to 10 days. The PerioChip®, a 4 mm x 5 mm x 350 µm chip about the size of a baby's fingernail, is inserted directly into the infected periodontal pocket. Perichip® is intended to be used as an adjunct to patient periodontal treatment that includes scaling and root planing and good oral hygiene.
hope this helps

hi anjali_45
u r genius 👍
 
To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed
a. over the crest of the mandibular ridge
b. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge
A

3. The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
a. the effective dose to the toxic dose
b. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to the effective dose for 50 of animals

therapeutic index is LD50/ED50
median lethal dose/median effective lethal dose(ref kd tripathi)
ans b

7. with the development of gingivits, the sulcus becomes predominantly populted by
a. gram positive microorganism
b. gram negative microorganism
choice b

12. carious lesion are most likely to develop if a patient has
a. high lactobacillus ccount
b. saliva with low buffering capacity
c. plaque on his tooth
d. lactic acid i his mouth
choice a(that is why cries test is lactobaccillus test)

17. a cast post and core is used to
a. strengthen a weakened tooth
b. provide reteention for a cst crown
c. both
i think b
becuse its preperation weaken tooth-let me know the correct ans

19. normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. non-keratinizes
2. squamous
3. stratified

a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3
choice A


34. a lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in
a. maximum intercuspation
b. initial conta
??i did not understand the question any one plz explain

40. following root planning, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following
a. free nerve ending
b. odontoblastic process
choiceA

43. the best way to protcet the abutments of a Class I removable partial dentre from the negative effect of the additional load applied to them is by
a. splinting abutments with adjaent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extension
c. placing distal rest on distal abutments
d. using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extension
dont know

46. The tooth preparation for porcelain veneer must create a
a. rough surface for improved bonding
b. space for a[ppropriate thickness of thevenneering material
c. margin well below the gingival creat
d. definite finish line
choice D

52. the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam for class 2 pedo molar teeth is
a. insufficient depth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
c. lien angle too sharp
choice C
53. the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
choice a can be cleaned easily less nfection

54. where is the gold directed on an MO onlay sprue
a. faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
a

58. a periodontal exam of a patient refered for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b. there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
Pls. explain i did not get this question

62. Meperidine overdose is treted with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
choiceA

65. collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduce the shape of the beam
c. reduce the radiation to the patient
d. all of the above
choice D

61. in its classic form, serial extraction is best applied to patients with class I occlusion with crowding of
a. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
b. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 35% overbite
c. less than 10mm in each of upper and lower arches and 70% overbite
d. 10mm or more in each of the upper and lower arches and 70% overbite

80. in a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, which muscle is penetrated by the needle
a. buccinator
b. mylohyoid
c. superior constrictor
d. masstere
e. medial pterygoid
choice E[/QUOTE]
 
let me know if i am wrong
5. class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This migh have beesn caused by which of the following
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
ans c

10. probiong depth can vary based on the degree of inflammtion frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first is true, the second is false
d. the first is false, the second is true
ans a
gingival odema decrease

11. a major advantage to patietn treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believd to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. progressive loading
???

12. an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip, an examination disclose a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region, the patient first notcied this swelling three weeks ago, radiograph indicated a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiatting pattern of trabeculae in the mass, which of the following is thhe MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
ans e not sure
17. which of the following explains why the z plasty techniques used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less trauamtic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it increased the effect of scar contracture
e. it allows for closure by second intention
ans e
18. which of the following MOST accurately explain how biofeedback works
a. reduce cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathtic nervous system
c. it relax and tos some extent hypnotize the patient
d. it distract and engages the patient in coping active task
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
what is the meaning of biofeedback???examlpe low level of thyroxin tn the body stimulatestsh help elese throxinfrom thyroid-that is what i am able to think right now

19. which of the following describe clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall stynthesis
b. does not penetrate well into ony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. it is effective against gram negative bacteria only
e. it effective against most anaerobes.[/QUOTE]
ans e
 
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