I've never quite seen the answer to this question and I would love some insight. I'm using CA and FL in this example to make it more straightforward, but if there's an answer that applies to all states I'd want to hear it.
If a doctor licensed in CA (and not FL) sees a patient that is a resident of CA, but sees them in FL, and then calls in a prescription to the patient's pharmacy in CA, was the doctor practicing across state lines and without a license in FL? Or were they reasonably practicing under their CA license?
What if the patient has the prescription picked up at a FL pharmacy because they have a national chain? Does that change whether the doctor was practicing with or without a license?
If a doctor licensed in CA (and not FL) sees a patient that is a resident of CA, but sees them in FL, and then calls in a prescription to the patient's pharmacy in CA, was the doctor practicing across state lines and without a license in FL? Or were they reasonably practicing under their CA license?
What if the patient has the prescription picked up at a FL pharmacy because they have a national chain? Does that change whether the doctor was practicing with or without a license?