Destroyer Bio 186

[osimsDDS]

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I agree with every statement and why its true but for A, it states:

Each gene pair tends to assort into gametes independently of other gene pairs that are located on nonhomologous chromosomes.

the term nonhomologous throws me off, i thought independent assortment they are talking about homologous chromosome pairs when they line up in metaphase and split into different cells where one homologous pair doesnt affect the distribution of the other pair into the other cell...

Or are non-homologous pairs in meiosis II also independently assorted as well??

thanks

 

[DRHOYA]

I think that statement is a very vague insight to Mendell's law of independent assortment. The term non-homologous is just referring to one of the many other chromosomes undergoing the stages of meiosis. So, when it says that gene pairs can assort into gametes independently of other gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes, it basically means that genes on 1 chromosome will produce gametes independently of genes that form gametes from another chromosome. If there are two chromosomes that are not part of the same homologous pair going through meiosis, their genes will assort into gametes independently of one another. I hope that makes sense and helps.

 

[osimsDDS]

yea thats EXACTLY what i was thinking, like if you have homologous chromosome pairs that code for Eye color (dominant and recessive alleles) and then another homologous chromosome pairs that code for Hair color (dominant and recessive alleles), basically its stating that the eye color homologous pairs will assort independently of the hair color ones...this is kinda hard to explain but...

If you have Eye color homologous pairs AA and aa and you have hair color homologous pairs BB and bb then AA will assort independently from BB or bb or the other way around...

Do you see what i am saying, like AA and BB are non-homologous pairs basically because they code for different traits...

Is that what you were saying, are we on the same page Drhoya??? thanks

 

[DRHOYA]

yea thats EXACTLY what i was thinking, like if you have homologous chromosome pairs that code for Eye color (dominant and recessive alleles) and then another homologous chromosome pairs that code for Hair color (dominant and recessive alleles), basically its stating that the eye color homologous pairs will assort independently of the hair color ones...this is kinda hard to explain but...

If you have Eye color homologous pairs AA and aa and you have hair color homologous pairs BB and bb then AA will assort independently from BB or bb or the other way around...

Do you see what i am saying, like AA and BB are non-homologous pairs basically because they code for different traits...

Is that what you were saying, are we on the same page Drhoya??? thanks

Exactly!!! I think my wording could have been a little better. Yeah, like you said if you have AA and aa on a homologous pair for eye color, and you have BB and bb on a homologous pair for hair color............then they will assort independently.

I like your example. Think of it this way in real life. You can have a wide range of hair color for a wide range of eye color (thanks to independent assortment).

 

[PooyaH]

I paused when I read choice A too! but this would kinda explain it as you guys did:

http://www.sumanasinc.com/webcontent/animations/content/independentassortment.html