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I understand that statement 1 in question #534 is correct, however, I don't get why statement 2 is also correct.
In anaphase II, can both of the daughter cells produced from meiosis I undergo non-disjunction? If this happens, would there be 4 abnormal daughter cells produced at the end of meiosis II?
In anaphase II, can both of the daughter cells produced from meiosis I undergo non-disjunction? If this happens, would there be 4 abnormal daughter cells produced at the end of meiosis II?