Destroyer biology problem #534

Started by jz123
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jz123

Full Member
7+ Year Member
I understand that statement 1 in question #534 is correct, however, I don't get why statement 2 is also correct.
In anaphase II, can both of the daughter cells produced from meiosis I undergo non-disjunction? If this happens, would there be 4 abnormal daughter cells produced at the end of meiosis II?
 
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Non-disjunction during Mitosis results in 2n+1 and 2n-1? Is this correct?
Correct
 
I understand that statement 1 in question #534 is correct, however, I don't get why statement 2 is also correct.
In anaphase II, can both of the daughter cells produced from meiosis I undergo non-disjunction? If this happens, would there be 4 abnormal daughter cells produced at the end of meiosis II?

What you are saying is correct, but it is a very rare event. The question in the Destroyer was based on more commonly occurring situations.

The event you are describing has a very low probability of occuring.

Hope this helps.