do I have to complete a residency???

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megalocyte

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I apologize if this issue has already been addressed and I missed the thread in my search...

I am wondering if it is necessary to COMPLETE a residency in order to practice (as an MD). I heard an osteopathic student once mention that DOs can practice after completing one year of training.

If I were to do a transitional year and complete step 3, would I then be licensed? Even if it would only allow me to practice in a clinic, or similar setting... I am also wondering if the rules may vary state-to-state...?

Can anyone shed any light?
 
Besides the state's license requirements, many hospitals and practice groups today require BE/BC as a condition of employment. Malpractice insurance will be higher if you are not specialty boarded and may be the biggest factor in limiting your scope of practice, although you could likely find locums opportunities.
 
Yeah, you can usually practice legally as a GP with just one or two years post-graduate, though you won't get paid jack crap without a board cert.
 
It's getting tougher and tougher these days to hang your shingle with only a year of residency training and a license. Most employers require you to be BE/BC...ditto with many insurance carriers.
 
1)Insurance companies (who sometimes mess up medicine) wont respect you if you just do a year or two of residency!

2)Only one I know who may be able to possibly shortciruit the system without excess bowing down is the military.. [Thanks to the powers that be we are going to fighting almost forever!]
Dont get me wrong there will probably be a pile of pressure here too!

3) Let us know if there is a way to do it..😱
 
More and more states are changing their license requirements so that you must complete a residency. In the 'old days' once could practice after an internship and do fairly well. Those days are over in this era of healthcare.

Why do you ask the question? Do you truly dislike your residency? Have you considered non-clinical options?
 
I am wondering if it is necessary to COMPLETE a residency in order to practice (as an MD). If I were to do a transitional year and complete step 3, would I then be licensed? Even if it would only allow me to practice in a clinic, or similar setting... I am also wondering if the rules may vary state-to-state...?

One year of residency is sufficient as long as you pass Part III of the Steps to get your license. You can still get employment in a VA hospital, the military, walk-in clinic (not hospital affiliated), and severe shortage areas of the USA. Also possibly Native American reservations (not completely sure). I have a classmate who emigrated to Israel after his internship and was employed. So work in some other countries is also possible.
 
One year of residency is sufficient as long as you pass Part III of the Steps to get your license. You can still get employment in a VA hospital, the military, walk-in clinic (not hospital affiliated), and severe shortage areas of the USA. Also possibly Native American reservations (not completely sure). I have a classmate who emigrated to Israel after his internship and was employed. So work in some other countries is also possible.

Possible, but is it desirable?
 
One year of residency is sufficient as long as you pass Part III of the Steps to get your license. You can still get employment in a VA hospital, the military, walk-in clinic (not hospital affiliated), and severe shortage areas of the USA. Also possibly Native American reservations (not completely sure).

Don't forget prisons. You could also open up your own clinic but would be limited to Medicaid/Medicare/self-pay, as most insurance companies would not contract with someone who is not board elgible. I know one doc who didn't finish residency who works at an in-house clinic for a large manufacturing company; he does essentially what a nurse practitioner does and is paid a np salary.
 
I know one doc who didn't finish residency who works at an in-house clinic for a large manufacturing company; he does essentially what a nurse practitioner does and is paid a np salary.

And yet when he's sued, he's going to be held to the standard of care and expected level of knowledge of an MD. So the downside is greater than the upside.
 
I apologize if this issue has already been addressed and I missed the thread in my search...

I am wondering if it is necessary to COMPLETE a residency in order to practice (as an MD). I heard an osteopathic student once mention that DOs can practice after completing one year of training.

If I were to do a transitional year and complete step 3, would I then be licensed? Even if it would only allow me to practice in a clinic, or similar setting... I am also wondering if the rules may vary state-to-state...?

Can anyone shed any light?

This is no longer practical. Why do that when you can throw in an extra 2 years and get some primary care BE or BC? That gives you much more options and money. Honestly, I have come to terms with the fact that there is no free lunch in medicine.
 
short answer: not really.

1. you can't get malpractice.
2. most states are changing thier requirements.
3. You probably shouldn't anyway.... bad patient care.
 
Why not just do a 3 year FM residency? That's the only way to competently and safely practice as a "GP" anymore.

Yeah it's 3 years, but that's not that long relatively speaking.
 
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