Hi everyone, I am looking for some advice on how to approach CII scripts to make things less stress for prescribers, patients, and myself.
I print out PDMP for every CII prescription and fill as they're not early, same physician, same pharmacy, make sense (IR + ER), and low quantity (under #120 preferably but I've filled up to #240). So ~80% of the prescriptions I get are filled with no issue, but the other ~20% are a headache to deal with. I am reluctant to turn away scripts that doesn't fit the above criteria and usually call the prescriber to find diagnosis code and goal of care to see if prescriber have plans to decrease patient opioid use for the high quantity ones (if so, I'll document and dispense so physician can conduct slow taper). However, this is a very time consuming process and often results in yelling and threats from pt and/or prescriber. I'm getting discouraged and sometimes just feel like turning the patients away to save the headaches. What am I doing right, what am I doing wrong, am I spending too much time on the CII's?
Scenarios 1:
What are everyone's thoughts of using a stimulant to stay awake due to high opioid use? Could the patient's dose of morphine be decreased just enough to ease the pain but not knock him out? Is it reasonable to call prescriber suggesting slow taper down citing CDC guideline caution against chronic daily opioid use > 90 MME/day and request a script for narcan to go along with everything. If it makes a difference, prescriber is an anesthesiologist/pain specialist with probation in the past due to refilling norco w/o properly assessing pt.
Scenario 2:
Was I in the wrong for requesting one of two IR's to be switched to an ER for better pain coverage? Are there any good reasons to give two IR opioids at such high quantities at a time?
I print out PDMP for every CII prescription and fill as they're not early, same physician, same pharmacy, make sense (IR + ER), and low quantity (under #120 preferably but I've filled up to #240). So ~80% of the prescriptions I get are filled with no issue, but the other ~20% are a headache to deal with. I am reluctant to turn away scripts that doesn't fit the above criteria and usually call the prescriber to find diagnosis code and goal of care to see if prescriber have plans to decrease patient opioid use for the high quantity ones (if so, I'll document and dispense so physician can conduct slow taper). However, this is a very time consuming process and often results in yelling and threats from pt and/or prescriber. I'm getting discouraged and sometimes just feel like turning the patients away to save the headaches. What am I doing right, what am I doing wrong, am I spending too much time on the CII's?
Scenarios 1:
A young pt (30's) gets morphine ER 30 mg #90, morphine IR 30 mg #360, methylphenidate 10 mg #180, Tramadol #240 (fairly recent addition), Soma #90 monthly. There was recent changes which increased the quantity of IR and decreased ER (due to insurance issue per patient). Patient stated he's been on regimen for 3-4 years due to herniated disk and is using the methylphenidate to help him stay awake after taking morphine.
What are everyone's thoughts of using a stimulant to stay awake due to high opioid use? Could the patient's dose of morphine be decreased just enough to ease the pain but not knock him out? Is it reasonable to call prescriber suggesting slow taper down citing CDC guideline caution against chronic daily opioid use > 90 MME/day and request a script for narcan to go along with everything. If it makes a difference, prescriber is an anesthesiologist/pain specialist with probation in the past due to refilling norco w/o properly assessing pt.
Scenario 2:
Pt fills oxycodone 30mg #360 and norco 10/325mg #120 each month. Told pt and prescriber it is duplication of therapy and requested one of the IR's be switched to ER. The physician's reason for prescribing two IR's was that pt's copay was too high ($200-$300 range for 60 pills of hysingla/zohydro/oxycontin), but pt was happy to pay ~$170 cash for 360 counts of oxycodone 30. The agreement then is that I fill the oxycodone for #120, file the norco away, and the prescriber will send in a different ER script the next day. The pharmacist staffing the next day called me up the following afternoon to inform me that he refused the oxycodone 80 mg ER TID b/c oxycodone IR was filled the previous day but he filled the norco #120 which made pt and prescriber both happy.
Was I in the wrong for requesting one of two IR's to be switched to an ER for better pain coverage? Are there any good reasons to give two IR opioids at such high quantities at a time?
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