Are these patients neuroleptic naive? Is there any dose dependency to reactions like NMS and therefore an advantage that way to starting at that introductory dose rather than higher? I'm curious if any of this is a consideration for starting dose? And is this risk expected to be lower for people who have not reacted in that way in the past? I apologize I'm piggybacking off your question to ask a few of my own, but I do wonder if what I'm thinking plays a role in those guidelines.
My impression was that plenty of people even when very agitated and "up" can still respond pretty snow-ily to say a standard dose like 300 mg, just as you or I or someone not agitated, psychotic, or manic might. Meaning that I'm not sure how much the sedation effect is really counterbalanced by starting agitation level? Which isn't to say that sometimes it isn't as you might expect, and they need significantly higher doses to combat how wound up they are.
What I'm trying to say, is I've seen people be off the walls and still a normal dose of a sedating med can sedate them and snow them to a level that you wouldn't have expected for where they seemed to start. It seems to depend on a number of factors, one being that you're reasonably sure it's mania or the like, and not say agitated delirium (I will assume that is the case here), size, age, how exhausted the patient otherwise is, etc etc.
I saw a case with a patient that was slim, young, definitely a psychotic break, took like 7 full grown male police officers to subdue, was tased like 11 times, but I think it may have tired them out in all reality even though they never quit until they were medicated, and they were given what probably seemed like a dose appropriate, as in proportional to all this, to subdue them, and they were basically out for days and days despite lowering the dose. Ultimately it seemed to take only a whiff of neuroleptic to get them under control.
I've seen other patients similar, including mania. Medication response was not proportional to how manic they were, ie they were very very manic but it still only took anything from a standard dose to a whiff to get them calmed down. I don't have enough experience to say how common that is.
Some of these patients seem to almost collapse under a reasonable dose of chemical restraint. I wonder if this is why the recommended starting dose?
Obviously you have to consider if you're getting the patient under control enough to not be a continuing danger to themselves or others in dosing. But also has to be balanced with the dangers of getting snowed, as that can be quite dangerous as well.
I think sometimes we can get into a mindset of thinking we always need to dose proportionally for the amount of subjective problem there is, and that isn't always true. I'm not talking about titration here, just starting doses. You can be surprised sometimes by response is all I'm saying.
I don't know how much that is the case with mania and seroquel, so I am curious.
I'm not an expert so this may not be that useful. Apologies if so.