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Why does phenylephrine (an alpha agonist) increase systolic BP?
My understanding (quite possibly wrong) was that:
Systolic BP is mostly determined by cardiac output (so heart rate + contractility of the heart are the main factors)
Diastolic BP is mostly determined by peripheral resistance
Thus, I can see why an alpha-agonist (phenylephrine) increases diastolic BP (alpha1-mediated vasoconstriction) but I cannot see why it would increase systolic BP (and in fact, does so drastically - in FA 2016 page 247, 248 you can see that phenylephrine increases systolic BP just about as much as does norepinephrine*)
*Norepinephrine acts on both alpha and beta (remember that beta1 increases heart rate and contractility) whereas phenylephrine only acts on alpha yet the two seem to have the same effect on systolic BP...
Here's my guess at the answer:
The increase in vasoconstriction is so large that it causes increased venous return which then leads to increased cardiac output (which leads to increased systolic BP)?
My understanding (quite possibly wrong) was that:
Systolic BP is mostly determined by cardiac output (so heart rate + contractility of the heart are the main factors)
Diastolic BP is mostly determined by peripheral resistance
Thus, I can see why an alpha-agonist (phenylephrine) increases diastolic BP (alpha1-mediated vasoconstriction) but I cannot see why it would increase systolic BP (and in fact, does so drastically - in FA 2016 page 247, 248 you can see that phenylephrine increases systolic BP just about as much as does norepinephrine*)
*Norepinephrine acts on both alpha and beta (remember that beta1 increases heart rate and contractility) whereas phenylephrine only acts on alpha yet the two seem to have the same effect on systolic BP...
Here's my guess at the answer:
The increase in vasoconstriction is so large that it causes increased venous return which then leads to increased cardiac output (which leads to increased systolic BP)?