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Given that the standard reduction potentials for Sm^3+ and [RhCl6]^3- are -2.41 V and 0.44 V, calculate the EMF of the following reaction:
[Sm^3+] + Rh + [RhCl6]^3- + Sm
Looking at the equation, Sm^3+ is reduced and Rh is oxidized. So we use the Sm^3+ reduction potential as is and we flip the reduction potential for Rh
EMF: -2.41 + (-0.44) = -2.85
Therefore, the cell is electrolytic. From this result, it is evident that the reaction would proceed spontaneously to the left, in which case the Sm would be oxidized while [RhCl6]^3- would be reduced.
Can someone explain the bolded part? I understand the rest. I dont understand why they concluded that because it is electrolytic, it must proceed to the left. Is it because, as written (to the right), it is electrolytic, which is non-spontaneous reaction. So, to make it a spontaneous reaction, you have make it go to the left?
[Sm^3+] + Rh + [RhCl6]^3- + Sm
Looking at the equation, Sm^3+ is reduced and Rh is oxidized. So we use the Sm^3+ reduction potential as is and we flip the reduction potential for Rh
EMF: -2.41 + (-0.44) = -2.85
Therefore, the cell is electrolytic. From this result, it is evident that the reaction would proceed spontaneously to the left, in which case the Sm would be oxidized while [RhCl6]^3- would be reduced.
Can someone explain the bolded part? I understand the rest. I dont understand why they concluded that because it is electrolytic, it must proceed to the left. Is it because, as written (to the right), it is electrolytic, which is non-spontaneous reaction. So, to make it a spontaneous reaction, you have make it go to the left?