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A disorderly conduct conviction is a criminal conviction. You committed a crime and you were convicted of it. It was most likely a misdemeanor, but a crime nonetheless. I don't know why you think you'd be absolved from answering "yes" to the misdemeanor question. And what exactly do you mean by a violation being "sealed"???
A subjective question like this is open to interpretation. I'd answer "no" to this one, especially since you seem to be pretty good at politician speak as evidenced by your previous paragraph. If ever put on the spot, you might be able to defend your position for answering "no."