Step I FA: pg 444

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HelpPleaseMD

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10+ Year Member
Can someone please explain why strokes affecting the anterior spinal artery would lead to contralateral /ipsi of anything? Isn't the ACA 1 artery that supplies both sides ?
 
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The artery has to split into two at some point. Obstruction at that point would only affect half of the spinal cord.
 
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