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This is a problem from the Kaplan Book...
Question- The solubility of Fe(OH)3 in an aqueous solution was determined to be 4.5 X 10^-10 mol/L. What is the vlaue of the Ksp for Fe(OH)3?
SOLUTION-- Fe(OH)3 (s) ---> Fe^3+ (aq) + 3OH- (aq)
So they made a balanced equation I understand that, but why did they put a +3 on the Fe?
So 1 mol of Fe(OH)3 dissociates--> 1 mole of Fe^3+ and 3 mol of OH- are produced. Ksp= (Fe^3+) (OH-)^3 then...
they write--- (OH-)= 3(Fe^3+) so where (what step)/ why does the coefficient get put infront of the Fe now?
If anyone can help it will be greatly appreciated!!! thanks in advance =)
Question- The solubility of Fe(OH)3 in an aqueous solution was determined to be 4.5 X 10^-10 mol/L. What is the vlaue of the Ksp for Fe(OH)3?
SOLUTION-- Fe(OH)3 (s) ---> Fe^3+ (aq) + 3OH- (aq)
So they made a balanced equation I understand that, but why did they put a +3 on the Fe?
So 1 mol of Fe(OH)3 dissociates--> 1 mole of Fe^3+ and 3 mol of OH- are produced. Ksp= (Fe^3+) (OH-)^3 then...
they write--- (OH-)= 3(Fe^3+) so where (what step)/ why does the coefficient get put infront of the Fe now?
If anyone can help it will be greatly appreciated!!! thanks in advance =)