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This question is from Kaplan's end of the chapter review questions and I just don't get it!
If a male hemophiliac (X^h Y) is crossed with a female carrier of both color-blindness and hemophilia (X^c X^h), what is the probability that a female child will be phenotypically normal?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) Same as for a male child
E) Not enough information given
The book's explanation: Correct Answer: C "In this problem we are told that the female in this cross is a carrier of two sex-linked traits: color-blindness and hemophilia. We are also told that the genes for these traits are not found on the same X chromosome, as indicated by her genotype, X^c X^h. So in this cross, of the female offspring, half, or 50%, will be phenotypically normal.
If you do the cross between (X^h Y) and (X^c X^h), you get (X^h X^c), (X^h X^h), (X^c Y) and (X^h Y). Doesn't this show that both females will be hemophiliac?
I'm probably wrong but I just don't seem to be getting something...
If a male hemophiliac (X^h Y) is crossed with a female carrier of both color-blindness and hemophilia (X^c X^h), what is the probability that a female child will be phenotypically normal?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) Same as for a male child
E) Not enough information given
The book's explanation: Correct Answer: C "In this problem we are told that the female in this cross is a carrier of two sex-linked traits: color-blindness and hemophilia. We are also told that the genes for these traits are not found on the same X chromosome, as indicated by her genotype, X^c X^h. So in this cross, of the female offspring, half, or 50%, will be phenotypically normal.
If you do the cross between (X^h Y) and (X^c X^h), you get (X^h X^c), (X^h X^h), (X^c Y) and (X^h Y). Doesn't this show that both females will be hemophiliac?
I'm probably wrong but I just don't seem to be getting something...