- Joined
- Jan 31, 2011
- Messages
- 119
- Reaction score
- 1
I came across this practice question in my studies and I feel like it is incorrect.
39) Assume the autosomal condition X is caused by having two recessive alleles. If a father is a carrier of condition X and the mother does not have condition X (nor is she a carrier), what is the probability that a daughter of these two parents will be a carrier of a recessive allele?
A)100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
I said D, because there's a fifty percent chance you will have a female child, and a fifty percent chance one of the offspring is a carrier. Thus, (1/2)(1/2) = 1/4 = 25%.
However, the explanation said C was correct because you did not need to take the gender of the offspring into account because this was not a sex-linked trait. WTF? Has anyone heard of treating a problem like this using this logic before? I've always taken the gender into account regardless of whether or not it was sex-linked, given a specific gender was asked for in the question stem...!
39) Assume the autosomal condition X is caused by having two recessive alleles. If a father is a carrier of condition X and the mother does not have condition X (nor is she a carrier), what is the probability that a daughter of these two parents will be a carrier of a recessive allele?
A)100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
I said D, because there's a fifty percent chance you will have a female child, and a fifty percent chance one of the offspring is a carrier. Thus, (1/2)(1/2) = 1/4 = 25%.
However, the explanation said C was correct because you did not need to take the gender of the offspring into account because this was not a sex-linked trait. WTF? Has anyone heard of treating a problem like this using this logic before? I've always taken the gender into account regardless of whether or not it was sex-linked, given a specific gender was asked for in the question stem...!