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Is this true: GH --> hyperglycemia; IGF --> hypoglycemia?
If so, then what is the point of this? It seems like GH increases IGF to give its opposite effect? In addition, why would someone with high GH have hyperglycemia if IGF is also there to counteract its effects?
If so, then what is the point of this? It seems like GH increases IGF to give its opposite effect? In addition, why would someone with high GH have hyperglycemia if IGF is also there to counteract its effects?