Grammar in AAMC 10 question

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I don't know if I can post the question in its entirety but it's question 30 on the BS part of the AAMC 10 test. The question asks [paraphrasing] if a positive antibody (for the specific virus) test would indicate that the patient had an ulcer (which is often created by this specific virus).

The word in question is the "*had* an ulcer" part. In my understanding this would include the instance in which the patient in the past had an ulcer and now no longer has one (currently health). However, the AAMC correct answer and explanation says otherwise.

I know this is hard to say without the exact question but if any of you have access to the test, can you please explain this to me?

 

[TieuBachHo]

Oh, I think I know what this is 'bout. Once you are exposed to a virus, your body will build up a defense system (it however stays dormant once the ulcer subsides) just like it works in vaccines. Thus, a pos. test (a test for the present of this particular dormant antibody) would indicate that a person had contracted this type of virus in the past eventhough he/she doesn't necessarily have one.

Disclaimer: I don't have the test; therefore, my conjecture should be relative.