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study.steps

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Can someone help me understand this question please? Thank you!

A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of intermittent, diffuse, cramping lower abdominal pain. The pain is usually associated with2 to 6 days of loose, watery stools, and is typically relieved with defecation. Between these episodes, her stools are normal. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including complete blood count, metabolic panel, and thyroid function tests show no abnormalities. A drug targeting which of the following mechanisms of action is most appropriate for this patient?

A) Accentuation of bile salt reabsorption
B) Accentuation of μ-opioid myenteric plexus receptor - Correct
C) Inhibition of colonic water reabsorption
D) Inhibition of 5-hydroxytryptamine 1 receptor
E) Inhibition of tumor necrosis factor-α

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she has IBS. Treat with loperamide, an opioid agonist that works on the mu Opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine, decreasing its activity, decreasing contractions, allowing more water to be reabsorbed.


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