HELP! Psych shelf tomorrow.

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kaleerkalut

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Hello all
I have the Psych shelf tomorrow and I need some help with these Q's. Much appreciated:

Hello all -
I have the Psych shelf tomorrow and I missed a few questions I would really appreciate some help with:

1. A 42-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of increasingly severe episodes of lower abdominal pain. The pain is exacerbated during bowel movements, sexual intercourse, and menses. Treatment with several analgesics has not controlled the pain. Laparoscopy 4 years ago and a second laparoscopy 2 years ago for evaluation of pain showed no abnormalities. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms for contraception. She is a single parent and lost her job 6 months ago.She now has difficulty sleeping 1 to 3 nights each week because she worries about finding a job. Abdominal examination shows tenderness in both lower quadrants. Pelvic examination shows a mobile, nontender uterus and normal, nontender adnexa. A complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, Pap smear, and urine and cervical cultures show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to determine the cause of this patient's pain?


A) MRI of the pelvis
B) Psychiatric assessment
C) Hysteroscopy
D) Laparoscopy
E) Endometrial biopsy

The answer is not A

2. A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly severe pain that originates in her left shoulder and radiates to her elbow. She describes the pain as constant and burning, rating her current pain as a 7 on a 10-point scale. Eighteen months ago, she sustained a nerve injury of the left upper extremity in a motor vehicle collision. Since that time, she has been unable to return to work. Current medications include oxycodone and gabapentin. Physical examination shows atrophy of the left thenar eminence. Muscle strength in the leftforearm and finger flexors is 3/5. On sensory examination, there is severe pain with light stroking of the anterolateral aspect of the left arm. Further sensory testing is deferred. During the examination she tells her physician, "I'm tired of all this. My medication is not strong enough. It only takes the edge off my pain, which is only getting worse. I'm realizing I'll be like this forever." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?


A) "Are you worried about more nerve damage developing?"
B) "Do you ever use more pain medication than is prescribed?"
C) "Have you been feeling like just giving up?"
D) "Is the pain caused by touch socially limiting?"
E) "Let's review your medical concerns."

The answer is not E

3. A 47-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because of "unbearable" behavior during the past 2 weeks. His wife reports that he has been talking about his various inventions constantly and recently bought a new recreational vehicle, even though they do not travel long distances. He repeatedly tells his wife that "the time to make and enjoy money has come." He has been openly critical of their pastor's prayers during church services. He claims that the pastor does not know what he is talking about because "God is talking to me, not him." His wife says that he has had episodes of similar behavior during the past 10 years that have been more tolerable. He has peptic ulcer disease treated with ranitidine and hypertension treated with triamterene. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 82 kg (180 lb); BMI is 28 kg/m2. His pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no other abnormalities. On mental status examination, he is relaxed and talkative, jumping from one topic to another. He claims that his wife does not understand him and that she has been plotting with the pastor against him. He denies any problems and says that he feels great and is capable of great things. Laboratory findings are within the reference range. Urine toxicology screening is positive for marijuana. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?


A) Bipolar disorder
B) Delusional disorder
C) Mood disorder due to a general medical condition
D) Schizophrenia
E) Substance-induced mood disorder

The answer is not E

4. Five weeks after being discharged from the hospital after treatment for a psychotic episode, a 27-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. During hospitalization, he claimed that he was instructed by the Lord to found a new religion and that a famous gospel singer was in love with him. Today, he says that he still hears the voices of the Lord and members of the church he attends in his apartment and when he shops in the supermarket. He no longer believes the world needs a new religion because the Lord is no longer instructing him to create one. He states, "My father in heaven tells me that he is at peace, and therefore, so am I." Current medications include risperidone and lorazepam. He drinks one to two beers on weekends. He used marijuana regularly in college but has abstained for the past 5 years. He appears clean and is casually dressed. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 130/72 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a calm affect. He is cooperative, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time. Based on this information, which of the following is the most likely current diagnosis for this patient?


A) Bipolar disorder
B) Cyclothymic disorder
C) Delusional disorder
D) Schizoaffective disorder
E) Substance-induced mood disorder

The answer is not A

5. A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty sleeping, tearfulness, and restlessness since her daughter was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer 3 days ago. She reports that when she goes to bed at night, she is unable to fall asleep for several hours and lays in bed worrying about her daughter's situation. The patient underwent a mastectomy for breast cancer 7 years ago. She takes acetaminophen/butalbital for occasional migraines. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is tearful and tense but calms during the conversation. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?


A) Biofeedback
B) Carbamazepine therapy
C) Clonazepam therapy
D) Clonidine therapy
E) Imipramine therapy
F) Olanzapine therapy
G) Pentobarbital therapy
H) Sertraline therapy

The answer is not A

6. A 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her father for a well-child examination. He is concerned about her weight and eating habits. He says that she is always "on the go" and never sits down for a full meal. She will often just grab a piece of fruit when she is on her way to an activity. She will eat a full meal when the family has dinner together every Sunday. She has talked about wanting to become a vegetarian because of her concern for animals. She has had the same group of friends since elementary school. She is the captain of her soccer team and practices 4 days weekly. She is active in an after-school drama program 3 days weekly and is the lead in this season's play. She maintains a B grade average. Her father says that she talks on the telephone "constantly" and is animated and cheerful most of the time. When she is in her bedroom, she prefers to keep the door closed and stops talking if she is on the telephone and her father walks into the room. She has a disorganized bedroom and often falls fast asleep on a bed covered with piles of clothes. Menarche has not occurred. She appears thin and muscular. She is at the 50th percentile for height and 35th percentile for weight, which is unchanged from last year. Vital signs are within normal limits. Breast and pubic hair development are Tanner stage 2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. When interviewed alone, she is animated. She shrugs and rolls her eyes when asked about her diet and weight. She thinks she is fine and does not understand why her father is so upset. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?


A) Reassure the father that this is normal development
B) Recommend individual psychotherapy
C) Recommend nutritional counseling
D) Recommend that the father keep a log of what his daughter eats
E) Schedule weekly examination and weighing


7. A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for an examination prior to starting a new job. She has a 10-year history of binge-eating and self-induced vomiting. She takes no medications. She does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. She is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (160 lb); BMI is 23 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 10/min, and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows yellow dental enamel and abdominal striae. Serum studies are most likely to show which of the following abnormalities?


A) Decreased bicarbonate concentration
B) Increased amylase activity
C) Increased magnesium concentration
D) Increased potassium concentration
E) Increased sodium concentration

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Well no one has answered, and your shelf is probably in a few minutes if you haven't taken it already, so I'll take a stab.

1 - B: nonspecific symptoms with extensive workup including multiple ex-laps, significant psychological stress, this is probably psych

2 - B: I would guess you want to make sure she doesn't OD since she's taking an opioid, but I'm not too good with these questions

3 - A: talkative, spending money, psychotic sx, this is bipolar w/ psychotic features

4 - D: I guess the question is, is this bipolar with psychotic features (all psychotic sx are associated with mood changes), or schizoaffective (which requires that some episodes are psychosis w/o mood changes). this looks like psychosis w/o mood changes. this is too severe for cyclothymia, significant auditory hallucinations works against delusional d/o

5 - ?: forgot all my pharm

6 - A: everything seems normal

7 - A: vomiting should increase bicarb and drop electrolytes; I guess elevated amylase is related to parotitis
 
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Took it 1 week post partum with a baby in the NICU and passed. Barely studied and was suffering from post-partum idiocy. You will be fine.
 
I took this test recently and got most of those particular questions correct (though not others grrr!!)

Correct answers are:
1. B) Psychiatric assessment
2. C) Have you ever felt like giving up?
3. A) Bipolar disorder
4. Answer isn't A (your guess) or C (my guess). I think it's probably D (schizoaffective)?
5. H) Sertraline therapy
6. A) Normal development
7. Got this one wrong but I'm pretty sure it's B (increased amylase). All the rest of them are the opposite of what you usually see.
 
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I took this test recently and got most of those particular questions correct (though not others grrr!!)

Correct answers are:
1. B) Psychiatric assessment
2. C) Have you ever felt like giving up?
3. A) Bipolar disorder
4. Answer isn't A (your guess) or C (my guess). I think it's probably D (schizoaffective)?
5. H) Sertraline therapy
6. A) Normal development
7. Got this one wrong but I'm pretty sure it's B (increased amylase). All the rest of them are the opposite of what you usually see.

2) is definitely C, test makers produced this question to get you to probe on suicidality when people express hopelessness/chronic pain

4) This is the tricky way of describing schizoaffective disorder. The vignette gives a hospitalized manic episode with psychotic features. When seen in clinic the patient is no longer manic but still has psychosis which is the definition of schizoaffective disorder.

5) This is an awful question, 3 days of adjustement disorder and no option for therapy. Questions like this give psychiatry a bad name, I swear we don't do this crap in practice!
 
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Help with this question:
72 year old woman with metastatic BrCa is admitted because of altered mental status for 3 days. Family says she's been mumbling and softly moaning. She's been drinking more alcohol since she found out how far her disease has progressed. Current meds include fentanyl patches. There have been no recent changes in her med regimen. Vitals WNL. Physical exam normal. MSE: she appears to be hallucinating. She is not oriented to person, place, or time. Labs show Hct 35%, WBC 8k, Na 137, Ca 12.5, BUN 15, Cr 1.1, Alb 1.5. UA normal. CXR and CT head normal. What's the most likely cause of the altered mental status? A) adverse effect of fentanyl. B) alcohol withdrawal. C) hypercalcemia. D) MDD with psychotic features. E) meningitis
 
Help with this question:
72 year old woman with metastatic BrCa is admitted because of altered mental status for 3 days. Family says she's been mumbling and softly moaning. She's been drinking more alcohol since she found out how far her disease has progressed. Current meds include fentanyl patches. There have been no recent changes in her med regimen. Vitals WNL. Physical exam normal. MSE: she appears to be hallucinating. She is not oriented to person, place, or time. Labs show Hct 35%, WBC 8k, Na 137, Ca 12.5, BUN 15, Cr 1.1, Alb 1.5. UA normal. CXR and CT head normal. What's the most likely cause of the altered mental status? A) adverse effect of fentanyl. B) alcohol withdrawal. C) hypercalcemia. D) MDD with psychotic features. E) meningitis

C. There's no good answer, but they're probably trying to get at the fact that if you correct for albumin, she has a pretty significant calcium level (14.5). The caveat is that you wouldn't have a normal PE, but the fact that they mention MOANS and not an ECG (which would be abnormal) are clinchers.

The normal VS seem to rule out acute alcohol withdrawal (for tests like the Shelf and PRITE, the patient has been in the HOSPITAL for three days before developing symptoms), the fentanyl hasn't changed (although there might be a change in absorption if she lost a lot of weight recently), the shifting sensorium suggests delirium and organic etiology, and no fever speaks against meningitis.

The takeaway is that you can still get IM shelf questions in psych, and I could totally be getting this wrong by over thinking it.
 
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C. There's no good answer, but they're probably trying to get at the fact that if you correct for albumin, she has a pretty significant calcium level (14.5). The caveat is that you wouldn't have a normal PE, but the fact that they mention MOANS and not an ECG (which would be abnormal) are clinchers.

The normal VS seem to rule out acute alcohol withdrawal (in these tests, the person has been in the hospital for three days, not coming from home), the fentanyl hasn't changed (although there might be a change in absorption if she lost a lot of weight recently), the shifting sensorium suggests delirium and organic etiology, and no fever speaks against meningitis.

The takeaway is that you can still get IM shelf questions in psych, and I could totally be getting this wrong by over thinking it.

The answer is def hypercalcemia. Too many things pointing it's way.
 
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5. A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty sleeping, tearfulness, and restlessness since her daughter was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer 3 days ago. She reports that when she goes to bed at night, she is unable to fall asleep for several hours and lays in bed worrying about her daughter's situation. The patient underwent a mastectomy for breast cancer 7 years ago. She takes acetaminophen/butalbital for occasional migraines. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, she is tearful and tense but calms during the conversation. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?


A) Biofeedback
B) Carbamazepine therapy
C) Clonazepam therapy
D) Clonidine therapy
E) Imipramine therapy
F) Olanzapine therapy
G) Pentobarbital therapy
H) Sertraline therapy


Ok--this is strange--On my test, I answered H--Sertraline therapy and got it WRONG. What gives???
 
5. A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty sleeping, tearfulness, and restlessness since her daughter was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer 3 days ago.
It's been 3 days, what are you treating?
 
I was kind of leaning toward adjustment disorder, although not sure if the patient's own past history was causing her added stress. Anyway, someone upthread had noted that they answered sertraline and it was right, but I just took the test today, answered sertraline, and got it wrong. In retrospect, maybe low-dose clonazepam?
 
I was kind of leaning toward adjustment disorder, although not sure if the patient's own past history was causing her added stress. Anyway, someone upthread had noted that they answered sertraline and it was right, but I just took the test today, answered sertraline, and got it wrong. In retrospect, maybe low-dose clonazepam?
I would hate if sertraline were correct. It's just too early and not severe enough to be treating this with medications. For this reason, I would prefer biofeedback to help teach the patient to relax since she worries a lot and has trouble sleeping. But I could see them recommending a medication to help her sleep, so maybe the clonazepam would be what they're going for (though really, nearly all of that list is sedating).
 
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I wasn't too crazy about the answer choices either--I had originally thought about picking biofeedback as well. In the end, I picked sertaline, but noticed that apparently, someone had picked biofeedback and gotten THAT wrong! LOL--who knows?
 
Since it isn’t A or H, looks like we are forced to use a drug. I agree that this is a terrible question because almost everyone would want to see what evolves over the next week or two. None the less, she isn’t sleeping and is in distress. The bit about migraines seems out of the blue, almost like an abrupt foreshadow in a bad screen play. I say they are looking for the TCA or “E”. It may help the migraine prophylaxis and sleep. Old question writers love to exploit their comfort with old drugs.
 
While I generally teach my M3s to never pick TCAs or MAOIs for the shelf (as the test should be targetted at what a PCP should know about psychiatric management which rarely to never includes those drugs these days), Id have to admit that E makes the most sense given the migraines and insomnia. Definitely a bad question though and I wouldn't take this one to be the norm at all. Answer really should be supportive therapy and possible intervention if symptoms persist longer.
 
Since it isn’t A or H, looks like we are forced to use a drug. I agree that this is a terrible question because almost everyone would want to see what evolves over the next week or two. None the less, she isn’t sleeping and is in distress. The bit about migraines seems out of the blue, almost like an abrupt foreshadow in a bad screen play. I say they are looking for the TCA or “E”. It may help the migraine prophylaxis and sleep. Old question writers love to exploit their comfort with old drugs.

Why's it not A? Pretty sure that was the answer when I took it last year.
 
mdpre001 above my post said someone tried biofeedback and missed it.
 
I don't have access to the test anymore but I think the correctly marked answer was clonazepam... need the patient to go to sleep easier for the next few days/week while she comes to terms with the bad news about her daughter. This was a pretty debated question on the shelf thread in the Clinical Rotations subforum, but the mods deleted a lot of posts in that thread because of copyright violations so I don't think we can find those conversations anymore.

There was some general advice given early in that thread to not be shy about giving benzo's on the shelf. Even though it might not have been the best option in real practice, the benzo was often the correct answer on the exam.
 
I would think that the Benzo debate would be loud enough to make exam writers steer clear. Liberalness of Benzo use has so much more to do with treatment populations than symptom descriptions. If your core rotation was in a prison, you would probably think that IV Valium would be only second line in someone with status epi. Besides, her complaint is insomnia. Klonopin is a confusing choice. I'm not sure I could pass this test.
 
Another one for your peeps:
1. A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician at her husband's request because of increasing irritability and tense mood over the past year. Her husband would like to start a family, and he is concerned about her ability to handle the added responsibility. She says that she worries about their finances despite the fact that they have no debt and she and her husband have jobs that pay well. her pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for sweaty palms. Mental status examination shows tension and anxiety. She admits to occasional difficulty sleeping and periods of mild depression but does not think that this is out of the ordinary. Laboratory studies show:
Hct: 38%, RBC: 4 million/mm3, Leukocyte count: 5500/mm3, TSH: .5uU/mL, T4: 12ug/dL

Tox screening is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this pt?
A. Bupropion (not correct)
B. Buspirone
C. Levothyroxine
D. Methimazole
E. Quetiapine
 
Another one for your peeps:
1. A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician at her husband's request because of increasing irritability and tense mood over the past year. Her husband would like to start a family, and he is concerned about her ability to handle the added responsibility. She says that she worries about their finances despite the fact that they have no debt and she and her husband have jobs that pay well. her pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for sweaty palms. Mental status examination shows tension and anxiety. She admits to occasional difficulty sleeping and periods of mild depression but does not think that this is out of the ordinary. Laboratory studies show:
Hct: 38%, RBC: 4 million/mm3, Leukocyte count: 5500/mm3, TSH: .5uU/mL, T4: 12ug/dL

Tox screening is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this pt?
A. Bupropion (not correct)
B. Buspirone
C. Levothyroxine
D. Methimazole
E. Quetiapine

Answer B. Dx is GAD.
 
Another one for your peeps:
1. A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician at her husband's request because of increasing irritability and tense mood over the past year. Her husband would like to start a family, and he is concerned about her ability to handle the added responsibility. She says that she worries about their finances despite the fact that they have no debt and she and her husband have jobs that pay well. her pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for sweaty palms. Mental status examination shows tension and anxiety. She admits to occasional difficulty sleeping and periods of mild depression but does not think that this is out of the ordinary. Laboratory studies show:
Hct: 38%, RBC: 4 million/mm3, Leukocyte count: 5500/mm3, TSH: .5uU/mL, T4: 12ug/dL

Tox screening is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this pt?
A. Bupropion (not correct)
B. Buspirone
C. Levothyroxine
D. Methimazole
E. Quetiapine

The labs are a trick to make you think there's a thyroid issue when it's really GAD as the poster above me pointed out. I remember there being a specific question on my test ages ago that seemed to want you to know that buspar is really just for GAD. Bupropion is a horrible idea for this patient. Horrible! Although I have randomly seen people with predominate anxiety who find it helpful.
 
These are all straightforward in correct answer, although are awful questions as they don't really align with high standard of care, or don't expose necessary elements of determining the best approach.

The tricky ones (for students):
1. Pt with pelvic pain, long hx of negative results on exam and reasonable workup with possible psychosocial stressors -- we are conditioned to think of things without direct physical findings as diagnoses of exclusion. A better thought would be diagnoses of reasonable exclusion. Any vignette that gives you reasonable workup that is all negative is ALWAYS pointing toward a psychiatric diagnosis. Here they make it easy for you: psychiatric assessment, so you don't even have to give up on a medical process, just explore the next reasonable option.

2. Pain patient expressing that things just aren't working or getting better anymore -- many answers are fairly reasonable things to say, but the critical need here is to assess safety with an ambiguous "giving up" statement, so working your way towards a depression/suicide assessment is the right answer.

4. Pt dx with psychotic disorder, treated, no active substance use, presents for f/u still grandiose/psychotic -- tricky because they don't really comment on actual mood disorder symptoms and course of illness. The most reasonable answer is schizoaffective only because it is the only primary psychotic disorder (other than delusional d/o, which doesn't fit due to prominent hallucinations and multiple delusional systems). Although, you really couldn't say for sure that he doesn't have an ongoing manic episode based on available information. Still, no need to overthink: psychotic patient w/o clear mood disorder w/no medical/substance findings of interest => primary psychotic disorder

5. 3 days of acute anxiety and insomnia 2/2 daughter's illness with background h/o migraines (seemingly well controlled) -- this is an awful question with awful answer choices. The best real life answers live in the psychosocial realm +/- FDA-indicated insomnia med with limited addiction potential. Clonazepam, though often used in other ways, is FDA indicated for panic d/o and seizures only, not for insomnia or other anxiety disorders. That said, there is no fitting diagnosis warranting SSRI, no real reason to risk a TCA (although often used for sleep & migraines, remember migraines seem well controlled by vignette), and biofeedback although of lowest risk is not an established first-line treatment of anything. There is, however, a presumably short-term need to target severe anxiety and insomnia, for which a benzodiazepine is a good choice if not for the dismissal of psychosocial interventions and necessity to carefully weigh addiction risk. The data suggests that such a short-term use is not a risk in this fashion. However, behaviorists will point out that you are facilitating avoidance behavior and therefore feeding the anxiety by reinforcing it's validity as something that cannot be confronted.

Anxious woman with low TSH but normal T4, normal VS/physical exam -- even if suggestive of hyperthyroid, from an endo standpoint unclear to me if methimazole is warranted given normal exam/VS & lack of official dx studies (to answer Graves vs. thyroiditis); more reasonable initial tx is beta blockers for this kind of pt (will likely be tachycardic), and of course definitive dx/thyroid ablation or surgery if Graves. Since it's not that anyway, buspirone is FDA approved for GAD and the only reasonable option on the list, although best first-line treatment is SSRI vs. psychotherapy (CBT most evidence-based, but not necessarily superior) vs. both.
 
Anyone know the answer to this question:

7 year old girl is broth in to the physician because her parents are concerned about her recent preoccupation with death. Her dog died two months ago, and since that time she has repeatedly asked her parents if they are going to die. When her mother travels, the daughter worries that the plane will crash. She has begun to talk with her friends about the possibility of their parents dying. She continues to excel academically and participates in sports. Her pulse is 86/Minute, and what pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical exam shows no abnormalities. Mental status exam shows a neutral mood and an appropriately reactive affect. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?

A.) bereavement (no)
B.) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C.) posttraumatic stress disorder
D.) separation anxiety disorder
E.) age-appropriate behavior (maybe?)
 
Sounds like the typical annoying 7 year old to me
 
I'd go with E, but definitely defer to the child folks.
 
Since it isn’t A or H, looks like we are forced to use a drug. I agree that this is a terrible question because almost everyone would want to see what evolves over the next week or two. None the less, she isn’t sleeping and is in distress. The bit about migraines seems out of the blue, almost like an abrupt foreshadow in a bad screen play. I say they are looking for the TCA or “E”. It may help the migraine prophylaxis and sleep. Old question writers love to exploit their comfort with old drugs.
The funny thing is that the doses recommended for TCA's as migraine prophylaxis are lower than what is considered therapeutic for depressive episodes, making this answer almost entirely about headache/"neuro" and sleep/"medicine", but not what the test-taker is thinking about on this shelf... adjustment disorder-->given options for meds for depression/"psych."

Edit: Just realized I replied to a year old post...
 
Anyone know the answer to this question:

7 year old girl is broth in to the physician because her parents are concerned about her recent preoccupation with death. Her dog died two months ago, and since that time she has repeatedly asked her parents if they are going to die. When her mother travels, the daughter worries that the plane will crash. She has begun to talk with her friends about the possibility of their parents dying. She continues to excel academically and participates in sports. Her pulse is 86/Minute, and what pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Physical exam shows no abnormalities. Mental status exam shows a neutral mood and an appropriately reactive affect. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?

A.) bereavement (no)
B.) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C.) posttraumatic stress disorder
D.) separation anxiety disorder
E.) age-appropriate behavior (maybe?)

I'm not a child person, but I'd go with E on this. There is not clear functional impairment, and this is an age wherein the full concept of death and its meanings are being explored.
 
thanks guys- two more questions for you (these are from the new forum 4 psych shelf assessment btw)


1) A 62 year old women is brought in to the emergency department by her husband because of confusion for 4 hours. Her husband says that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for 3 days she forgets pots on the stove or does not know what day it is. This morning she was completely disoriented and thought that her husband was a burglar. She has been taking fluoxetine (20mg daily) for 2 weeks for treatment of MDD. Current medications also include propranolol (40mg TID) for HTN and doxepin (50mg at bedtime) for insomnia. She appears to be having visual hallucinations and is unable to give any useful information. Her pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min and blood pressure is 140/95. Examination shows dilated pupils, dry flushed skin and mild tremor. She is disoriented to person, place and time. An ECG shows first-degree AV block and widened QRS complex. Urine toxicology screening is negative. Which of following is most appropriate next step in management?

A.) Measurement of serum doxepin and desmethyldoxepin concentrations (not answer)
B.) measurement of serum floxetine and norfluoxetine concentrations
C.) Begin lorazepam (2mg every 8 hrs)
D.) d/c doxepin
E.) insert temporary pacemaker

2.) over the past 7 yeras, a 25-year-old graduation student has had increasinly severe palpitations, tremulousness, nausea, swetaing, and inability to concentrate while taking examinations. He is worreid because he recently failed an examination despite being thoroughly prepared. Examination shows normal findings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis

A.) ambulatory ECG monitoring
B.) 24 hour collection for 5-HIAA
C.) 24 hour collection for measurement of catecholamine and metanephrien concentration
D.) Measurement of T4 and TSH concentrations (not answer)
E.) Psychiatry evaluation
 
thanks guys- two more questions for you (these are from the new forum 4 psych shelf assessment btw)


1) A 62 year old women is brought in to the emergency department by her husband because of confusion for 4 hours. Her husband says that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for 3 days she forgets pots on the stove or does not know what day it is. This morning she was completely disoriented and thought that her husband was a burglar. She has been taking fluoxetine (20mg daily) for 2 weeks for treatment of MDD. Current medications also include propranolol (40mg TID) for HTN and doxepin (50mg at bedtime) for insomnia. She appears to be having visual hallucinations and is unable to give any useful information. Her pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min and blood pressure is 140/95. Examination shows dilated pupils, dry flushed skin and mild tremor. She is disoriented to person, place and time. An ECG shows first-degree AV block and widened QRS complex. Urine toxicology screening is negative. Which of following is most appropriate next step in management?

A.) Measurement of serum doxepin and desmethyldoxepin concentrations (not answer)
B.) measurement of serum floxetine and norfluoxetine concentrations
C.) Begin lorazepam (2mg every 8 hrs)
D.) d/c doxepin
E.) insert temporary pacemaker
I responded in your other thread but maybe here's better. What abnormalities do you see here and what do you think may be causing them? Based on your answer to that, why did you think A would be helpful?
 
Cross posting is a violation of SDN TOS. Please only post a question in one thread.
 
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thanks guys- two more questions for you (these are from the new forum 4 psych shelf assessment btw)


1) A 62 year old women is brought in to the emergency department by her husband because of confusion for 4 hours. Her husband says that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for 3 days she forgets pots on the stove or does not know what day it is. This morning she was completely disoriented and thought that her husband was a burglar. She has been taking fluoxetine (20mg daily) for 2 weeks for treatment of MDD. Current medications also include propranolol (40mg TID) for HTN and doxepin (50mg at bedtime) for insomnia. She appears to be having visual hallucinations and is unable to give any useful information. Her pulse is 110/min, respirations are 14/min and blood pressure is 140/95. Examination shows dilated pupils, dry flushed skin and mild tremor. She is disoriented to person, place and time. An ECG shows first-degree AV block and widened QRS complex. Urine toxicology screening is negative. Which of following is most appropriate next step in management?

A.) Measurement of serum doxepin and desmethyldoxepin concentrations (not answer)
B.) measurement of serum floxetine and norfluoxetine concentrations
C.) Begin lorazepam (2mg every 8 hrs)
D.) d/c doxepin
E.) insert temporary pacemaker

2.) over the past 7 yeras, a 25-year-old graduation student has had increasinly severe palpitations, tremulousness, nausea, swetaing, and inability to concentrate while taking examinations. He is worreid because he recently failed an examination despite being thoroughly prepared. Examination shows normal findings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis

A.) ambulatory ECG monitoring
B.) 24 hour collection for 5-HIAA
C.) 24 hour collection for measurement of catecholamine and metanephrien concentration
D.) Measurement of T4 and TSH concentrations (not answer)
E.) Psychiatry evaluation

I know this post is from months ago but thought I'd answer to help those in the future. I got these ones right.

1 -D. D/C doxepin. Doxepin is TCA = anticholinergic = bad in old people + can cause delirium
2.-E. Patient only has symptoms when taking a test = psychiatric rather than medical condition
 
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