Hello. If anyone can help me out 1, 2, or any whatever questions, i would appreciate it. NOTE - THE LAST 2 QUESTIONS ARE OSTEOPATHIC MANIPULATION QUESTION AND IF YOU'RE ALLOPATH U CAN IGNORE THEM.
The first 5 questions were taken from sample tests I did. I disagreed with answers they provided, but maybe i am missing out on something...i dunno.
1) An 8-year-old male presents to the office with outbursts of cursing. His parents state that they have tried everything to get him to stop. In observing the patient, you note that he blinks his eyes excessively. The parents state that the worst thing is that he smiles with a wide grin after he curses. The most effective treatment is
(A) divalproex sodium
(B) haloperidol
(C) lorazepam
(D) methylphenidate
(E) thioridazine
I thought the answer would be Haldol (Treatment for Tourettes). But the answer key to a practice says A) Divalproex sodium. Who is right?
2) A 50-year-old male with a history of a,-antitrypsin deficiency presents to the office complaining of the sudden
onset of right-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Three days prior to presentation he had a
laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. He denies nausea, vomiting and diaphoresis. ECG
demonstrates sinus tachycardia. His vital signs reveal:
Temperature: 37.7
Pulse: 110
Respirations: 25/min
The next most appropriate diagnostic study is
(A) ventilation-perfusion scan
(B) radiograph of the chest
(C) CT scan of the chest
(D) MRI of the chest
(E) thoracentesis
The answer key said B. Why isn't it A? I was thinking u have to R/O P.E. I might be way off on this question considering lack of sleep i have gotten past week. Is B the correct answer, or should it be A?
3) A 57-year-old smoker presents with hoarseness and a non-tender 3-cm firm mass in the right side of the neck.
The next appropriate step is
(A) CT scan of the neck
(B) fine needle aspiration biopsy of the mass
(C) laryngoscopy
(D) MRI of the neck
(E) open excisionai biopsy of the neck
The Answer key said C. I thought B should have been the answer. Why laryngoscopy over FNA? Can someone explain?
4) A 53-year-old male presents to the office with severe numbness and tingling down the lateral aspect of the left arm to the thumb and over the upper chest and back of the neck. This began insidiously one month ago, and no trauma is recalled.
The root level most likely involved is
(A) C3-C4
(B) C5-C6
(C) C6-C7
(D) C7-C8
(E) C8-T1
The Answer Key says C is the answer. However, I thought that B is the correct answer b/c my understanding is that C6 will present with numbness on lateral aspect of arm to thumb. Am I right, or is there something that I am overlooking?
5) During the gait analysis of a 19-year-old athletic male, you observe a lack of fluid motion. He reports that while playing football he was blocked from behind below the knees on the right. Standing flexion test is normal. Cruciate and collateral knee ligaments appear intact. Foot drop on the right is noted. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) upslipped innominate
(B) unilateral sacral shear
(C) anteriorly deviated distal femur
(D) anteriorly deviated fibular head
(E) plantar flexed cuboid
The answer key says D
I may be wrong on this i dunno...but doesn't the common peroneal nerve run posterior to the fibular head, and hence the REAL CORRECT answer should be d) POSTERIOR deviated fibular head instead of d) anterior deviated fibular head.
Lastly,
6) What would an anterior rotated innominate result in - an ipsilateral long leg OR an ipsilateral short leg. I read from 2 different sources..one said long leg, while the other one said short leg. Long leg seems more right to me, but manip is kryptonite to me.....
Thank you in advance to any or all answers, and to anyone who answer question 🙂 You don't know how much it would be appreciated, even if u help out with one. Thanks again 🙂
The first 5 questions were taken from sample tests I did. I disagreed with answers they provided, but maybe i am missing out on something...i dunno.
1) An 8-year-old male presents to the office with outbursts of cursing. His parents state that they have tried everything to get him to stop. In observing the patient, you note that he blinks his eyes excessively. The parents state that the worst thing is that he smiles with a wide grin after he curses. The most effective treatment is
(A) divalproex sodium
(B) haloperidol
(C) lorazepam
(D) methylphenidate
(E) thioridazine
I thought the answer would be Haldol (Treatment for Tourettes). But the answer key to a practice says A) Divalproex sodium. Who is right?
2) A 50-year-old male with a history of a,-antitrypsin deficiency presents to the office complaining of the sudden
onset of right-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Three days prior to presentation he had a
laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. He denies nausea, vomiting and diaphoresis. ECG
demonstrates sinus tachycardia. His vital signs reveal:
Temperature: 37.7
Pulse: 110
Respirations: 25/min
The next most appropriate diagnostic study is
(A) ventilation-perfusion scan
(B) radiograph of the chest
(C) CT scan of the chest
(D) MRI of the chest
(E) thoracentesis
The answer key said B. Why isn't it A? I was thinking u have to R/O P.E. I might be way off on this question considering lack of sleep i have gotten past week. Is B the correct answer, or should it be A?
3) A 57-year-old smoker presents with hoarseness and a non-tender 3-cm firm mass in the right side of the neck.
The next appropriate step is
(A) CT scan of the neck
(B) fine needle aspiration biopsy of the mass
(C) laryngoscopy
(D) MRI of the neck
(E) open excisionai biopsy of the neck
The Answer key said C. I thought B should have been the answer. Why laryngoscopy over FNA? Can someone explain?
4) A 53-year-old male presents to the office with severe numbness and tingling down the lateral aspect of the left arm to the thumb and over the upper chest and back of the neck. This began insidiously one month ago, and no trauma is recalled.
The root level most likely involved is
(A) C3-C4
(B) C5-C6
(C) C6-C7
(D) C7-C8
(E) C8-T1
The Answer Key says C is the answer. However, I thought that B is the correct answer b/c my understanding is that C6 will present with numbness on lateral aspect of arm to thumb. Am I right, or is there something that I am overlooking?
5) During the gait analysis of a 19-year-old athletic male, you observe a lack of fluid motion. He reports that while playing football he was blocked from behind below the knees on the right. Standing flexion test is normal. Cruciate and collateral knee ligaments appear intact. Foot drop on the right is noted. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) upslipped innominate
(B) unilateral sacral shear
(C) anteriorly deviated distal femur
(D) anteriorly deviated fibular head
(E) plantar flexed cuboid
The answer key says D
I may be wrong on this i dunno...but doesn't the common peroneal nerve run posterior to the fibular head, and hence the REAL CORRECT answer should be d) POSTERIOR deviated fibular head instead of d) anterior deviated fibular head.
Lastly,
6) What would an anterior rotated innominate result in - an ipsilateral long leg OR an ipsilateral short leg. I read from 2 different sources..one said long leg, while the other one said short leg. Long leg seems more right to me, but manip is kryptonite to me.....
Thank you in advance to any or all answers, and to anyone who answer question 🙂 You don't know how much it would be appreciated, even if u help out with one. Thanks again 🙂
