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Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can be caused by both "regular" heparin (unfractionated) or LMWH. However, there is an increased risk for HIT with use of unfractionated heparin. Correct?
Questions:
1) Why does heparin elevate the aPTT levels, yet LMWH does not prolong aPTT? [I feel like we learned the mechanism in MS2 but I don't remember]
2) For diagnosis of HIT, I assume the fall in platelet count will be at least 5 days after heparin is given in the question stem? I ask since let's say the platelet count dropped in the first day or two, this could be the normal fall in platelets that is sometimes seen (non-immune) which returns to normal thereafter.
Thanks!
Questions:
1) Why does heparin elevate the aPTT levels, yet LMWH does not prolong aPTT? [I feel like we learned the mechanism in MS2 but I don't remember]
2) For diagnosis of HIT, I assume the fall in platelet count will be at least 5 days after heparin is given in the question stem? I ask since let's say the platelet count dropped in the first day or two, this could be the normal fall in platelets that is sometimes seen (non-immune) which returns to normal thereafter.
Thanks!