Step II Horrible with ECGs :(

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theTruth_97

Full Member
7+ Year Member
so on Uworld there is one answer explanation which basically states that because there are ST segment elevation in leads I, avL, V2-V6 and reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads II, III, and aVF that means that the patient has acute atnerolateral MI due to occlusion of the left anterior descending artery.

I understood that the patient has anterolateral MI- how do I figure out which artery occlusion corresponds to it?

anyone have a good ECG resource that they would be willing to share (like a link)?

thanks!
 
so on Uworld there is one answer explanation which basically states that because there are ST segment elevation in leads I, avL, V2-V6 and reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads II, III, and aVF that means that the patient has acute atnerolateral MI due to occlusion of the left anterior descending artery.

I understood that the patient has anterolateral MI- how do I figure out which artery occlusion corresponds to it?

anyone have a good ECG resource that they would be willing to share (like a link)?

thanks!
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