Sorry about that, I apologize. Pt was on furosemide 20 mg bid, enalapril (don't recall the dose), spironolactone 25 mg po daily and digoxin 0.125 mg.
She was taking 100 mg po daily metoprolol XL when she presented to the ER with acute onset afib with irregularly regular heart beat and semi normal heart rates. HF was well controled except that her EF was low ~ 30 % and signs of cardiac hypertrophy on multiple tests. PMI was laterally displaced. HTN was well controlled as well, almost normotensive - ~ 122/80.
Out of curiosity, I'll share what we done as a class - again this isn't graded, this is just pbl system our school uses 🙂
We switched her to metoprolol tartrate and upped the dose to 200 mg for her afib to control the rate.
We also gave her a stroke prevention therapy - some gave her dabigatran, some put her on warfarin with heparin bridge for 3-5 days while she is inpatient.
We kept her other meds the same, since we thought further changes would be too invasive and in our theraptics course they always say 1-2 changes max at the time.
First - why is she on digoxin? What was the reasoning? Was it because the previous docs encountered hypotension while trying to rate control her? Perhaps she has sick sinus syndrome and people are afraid of going up on a beta-blocker? Was she someone who has severe HF and needed some ionotropic support in order to appropriately diurese? Is it mainly for symptomatic relief?
Second - you mentioned she presented in afib, but I'm not sure what you mean by "semi-normal heart rate". If she is in afib, she will definately have irregular irregular heart beat. If she was in RVR, then I can see going up on her beta-blocker. However, if her HR is reasonable, then I see no reason to change her rate control meds since she is being appropriately rate control*
Third - your group proposed going from Toprol XL 100mg daily to Lopressor 200mg? That's a pretty big increase - especially someone who is already digitized, and on diuretics (risk of not only bradycardia, hypotension, but also orthostatic hypotension + fall)
Fourth - does she have HTN? If yes, CHADS2 score of 2. If no, CHADS2 score of 1. Don't really understand the rationale for dabigatran, coumadin and heparin bridge given simultaneously. If the only reason for anticoagulation is for her afib, and she doesn't have a history of stroke, PE, or DVTs, then I would have placed her on coumadin without heparin bridge (and let her INR drift up to 2). Dabigatran is too new, likely won't be covered by insurance, effectiveness can't be monitored (especially if she is also on a PPI), and if she were to fall and bleed, or need surgery (whether emergent or elective), no one knows exactly how to reverse. If compliance is an issue, she is on a polypharmacy regiment for her chronic systolic heart failure - there are more things to worry about than anticoagulation compliance.
*if she is still symptomatic from her heart failure despite being adequately rate control, I would increase her beta-blocker, and would probably consider a referral to EP for an ICD placement (mainly primary prevention) but also will give me leeway in pushing the dose of her beta-blocker without having to worry about bradycardia.