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Here's my reasoning:
1. Any student on the pass-fail borderline has approximately equal likelihood of passing or failing.
Ok
2. Say a school with a 98% pass rate has 100 students. Assuming the 2 that failed almost passed, we can conclude that approximately 4 (give or take) of them were on the line. What is the likelihood of a school with 20% of its students being on the line and only 2% failing? Nearly zero.
????????
3. The distribution of scores at any school is smooth and wide. The random events that would lead such a school to having 2% failure and a high percentage in the 180s or 190s are very unlikely.
Again...on what are you basing this????? One thing has nothing to do with the other. Just because most of them passed says nothing at all about their score! It's much more likely to be a normal distribution with passing at the low end and stellars (above 250) at the high, placing most between 200-220. But even that puts about 25% around the low end.
They threw the blame at the medical schools because that was the factor that set these physicians apart. They didn't blame Step 3 or residency programs because that was something that all physicians had in common. Finding differences between groups is how researchers identify potential causes of phenomena.
- Again makes no sense.....there are probably a million other things that set them apart! And how are Step 3 and residency soemthing they had in common? They didn't go to the same programs (weren't even in the same specialty), just like they didn't go to the same med schools. So why is it different? How is medical school, where even schools that give a lot of clinical experience still leave students far short of fully prepared to care for patients, is the end all be all to these physicians actions. Blaming the med school is as random as blaming their kindergarten teachers.