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I have a question about this:
Lets say you have a heavy mass rolling down a frictionless incline. Then you have a lighter mass rolling down the same frictionless incline. The time it takes for both masses to reach the bottom is equal.
Why would it be equal? The heavier mass has a higher potential energy (mgh) meaning it will have a higher kinetic energy and thus higher velocity.
KE=1/2mv^2 ==> v=square-root (2KE)
If velocity is the change in distance over time, and the heavier mass has a higher velocity, the heavier mass is traveling a greater distance over time. So shouldn't the heavier mass roll down the incline faster?
Lets say you have a heavy mass rolling down a frictionless incline. Then you have a lighter mass rolling down the same frictionless incline. The time it takes for both masses to reach the bottom is equal.
Why would it be equal? The heavier mass has a higher potential energy (mgh) meaning it will have a higher kinetic energy and thus higher velocity.
KE=1/2mv^2 ==> v=square-root (2KE)
If velocity is the change in distance over time, and the heavier mass has a higher velocity, the heavier mass is traveling a greater distance over time. So shouldn't the heavier mass roll down the incline faster?