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deleted4401
I had an interesting case yesterday, and curious to see others would have approached.
70 yo woman with controlled DM, HTN who had been getting annual mammograms noted a palpable mass in her R breast. Went to gyn, no palpable axillary LAD. Was referred for dx mammogram and US. Significant change from prior mammogram, large 6-7 cm abnormality seen, and also seen on US. Referred for image guided bx and was found to have ILC, ER+, PR+, Her 2 Neu -. Surgeon saw her and recommended mastectomy/sentinel lymph node bx. Path showed 6cm tumor, negative margins (closest 0.5cm), no LVSI, no skin/muscle/nipple involvement. One sentinel lymph node was hot/blue and was negative on frozen/H&E, but b/c lobular histology, the local academic center auto-runs IHC on it. It came IHC+. PET/CT for staging negative. So, pT3N0(i+)M0.
They discussed the case at their tumor board, and came to the conclusion that skip ALND, treat chest wall and full axilla with RT.
Saw med-onc. They didn't run an OncoType - would you guys have wanted one? Going to get TC x 6
Saw me. My thoughts - in pre-IHC era, this lady was pT3N0, no adverse factors, clean margins, and I would have assessed her risk of LR at 7-8% (NSABP, MDACC/MGH series) and offered her the choice of chest wall RT vs no RT, with no strong leaning on my side. But, knowing she is IHC positive confuses things.
I ran her through the MSKCC nomogram, and her risk for having further disease in axilla was 29%. Put her through the other nomogram for having 4 or more nodes positive, and that was about 5-7%. I talked to the surgeon again, and she wasn't excited about an ALND.
In my head, she has a low risk of chest wall recurrence, regardless of the IHC status, but I don't know any data to suggest that is true (except knowing that the large series of T3N0 didn't have IHC status and they still had a good outcome), but I think 29% risk of axillary disease is high enough to warrant treatment. I'd prefer a dissection, but I don't feel strongly about it. I don't think it's okay to treat the axilla without treating the chest wall (because I've never seen that), so I'm going to do high tangents, and supplement if necessary with another field. As far as apex/SCV, again, since she has a low risk of disease, I'd rather not treat, but it is low toxicity and I'm in the neighborhood.
What bums me out is that if I didn't have IHC status, I would have leaned against treating at all. Now, b/c of IHC, I'm treating EVERYTHING.
How would the rest of you have thought this case through?
-S
70 yo woman with controlled DM, HTN who had been getting annual mammograms noted a palpable mass in her R breast. Went to gyn, no palpable axillary LAD. Was referred for dx mammogram and US. Significant change from prior mammogram, large 6-7 cm abnormality seen, and also seen on US. Referred for image guided bx and was found to have ILC, ER+, PR+, Her 2 Neu -. Surgeon saw her and recommended mastectomy/sentinel lymph node bx. Path showed 6cm tumor, negative margins (closest 0.5cm), no LVSI, no skin/muscle/nipple involvement. One sentinel lymph node was hot/blue and was negative on frozen/H&E, but b/c lobular histology, the local academic center auto-runs IHC on it. It came IHC+. PET/CT for staging negative. So, pT3N0(i+)M0.
They discussed the case at their tumor board, and came to the conclusion that skip ALND, treat chest wall and full axilla with RT.
Saw med-onc. They didn't run an OncoType - would you guys have wanted one? Going to get TC x 6
Saw me. My thoughts - in pre-IHC era, this lady was pT3N0, no adverse factors, clean margins, and I would have assessed her risk of LR at 7-8% (NSABP, MDACC/MGH series) and offered her the choice of chest wall RT vs no RT, with no strong leaning on my side. But, knowing she is IHC positive confuses things.
I ran her through the MSKCC nomogram, and her risk for having further disease in axilla was 29%. Put her through the other nomogram for having 4 or more nodes positive, and that was about 5-7%. I talked to the surgeon again, and she wasn't excited about an ALND.
In my head, she has a low risk of chest wall recurrence, regardless of the IHC status, but I don't know any data to suggest that is true (except knowing that the large series of T3N0 didn't have IHC status and they still had a good outcome), but I think 29% risk of axillary disease is high enough to warrant treatment. I'd prefer a dissection, but I don't feel strongly about it. I don't think it's okay to treat the axilla without treating the chest wall (because I've never seen that), so I'm going to do high tangents, and supplement if necessary with another field. As far as apex/SCV, again, since she has a low risk of disease, I'd rather not treat, but it is low toxicity and I'm in the neighborhood.
What bums me out is that if I didn't have IHC status, I would have leaned against treating at all. Now, b/c of IHC, I'm treating EVERYTHING.
How would the rest of you have thought this case through?
-S