It pains me to say this, but I feel like irrational polypharmacy IS the standard of care. Every once in a while, I'll read a forensic case (just for education) from one of our professors who does a lot of civil forensic work. Quite often, he is consulted in malpractice cases, so he has to assess whether the psychiatrist was following the "standard of care." When we've discussed this principle, it always bothers me to learn where we set the bar for "standard of care." He often says something like "well, I'm not sure I agree with the diagnosis, and I think it's suboptimal management, but this is not outside the range of what is generally considered to be the 'standard' in the community." Sometimes I want to pull my hair out to see how my patients are managed when they end up at some of the local for-profit hospitals.
One example: 10-yo girl with h/o ADHD and unspecified anxiety and very strong family history of bipolar I is admitted for an episode of elevated/expansive mood, grandiosity with delusions, auditory hallucinations, racing thoughts, pressured speech, decreased need for sleep, etc... quite convincing for an early-onset bipolar I manic/psychotic episode. She was admitted because she was running out into busy streets, and at baseline, she's smart enough to not do those sorts of things. In the hospital, they diagnose her with bipolar I manic/psychotic, increase her Zoloft from 25 to 50, increase Seroquel from 25 to 50, switch Vyvanse to a comparable dose of Adderall XR. I see her a couple of days after discharge, and she is still floridly manic (I know, you could say that she is too young to be manic and she's probably just ADHD, but she was quite convincingly manic, and several doctors saw her and agreed with that diagnosis) and still engaging in high-risk behaviors (trying to run around outside the house in unsafe environments). Mom says that the inpatient doc never talked to her directly throughout the whole hospitalization. She noticed a slight improvement at discharge, but when I saw the patient, she was marginally better than she was when she was admitted. The discharge summary said the standard "patient was admitted to the inpatient unit, received a full spectrum of biopsychosocial interventions, and has no SI/HI on discharge."
So in short, she was diagnosed with mania/psychosis, but her SSRI was increased and her Seroquel was left at an antihistamine dose. I just don't understand...