Irritable hypomania vs anxiety

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lockian

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What are some of your favorite tips and tricks for teasing that apart?

I’ll start: with anxiety there’s a predominance of perseveration and cycling through the same set of themes that patient is anxious about.

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Significantly more often than not ssris don't cause a manic switch.
 
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I would discourage a clinical process that is based on 'tips and tricks' and attempts to base categorical diagnostic distinctions on a single dichotomy (one has 'this' and the other has 'that') and rather craft a biospsychosocial formulation by which the entirety of the presentation is accounted for based on a comprehensive understanding of the brain-based, personality-based, and environmental vulnerabilities that are together driving the clinical presentation.
 
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What are some of your favorite tips and tricks for teasing that apart?

I’ll start: with anxiety there’s a predominance of perseveration and cycling through the same set of themes that patient is anxious about.
Wouldn't the typical cognitions accompanying the two states be somewhat distinct with anxiety always involving a fear of some sort that--at some level--the patient should be able to articulate or that their behavioral patterns (escape, avoidance) would make reasonably clear?

It always bugs me when people report 'anxiety' (or others report 'anxiety' on their behalf) but there is no actual fear, worry, or apprehension involved nor is there clear behavioral inclination to avoid/escape or avoidant or escape behavior. Anxiety is a motivational state and not all anxiety is about the same thing. The 'anxiety' in panic disorder, per se, is catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations fearing that they portend some horrific medical problem (e.g., that the patient is having a heart attack or going insane). Generalized anxiety disorder is more like chronic arousal due to multiple day-to-day worries (about bills, their family's mental health, etc.).

Sometimes sympathetic nervous system hyper-arousal is just...sympathetic nervous system hyperarousal (for whatever reason) and not actually 'anxiety.'

Also, isn't the emotional valence of hypomania generally positive whereas the emotional valence of actual clinical anxiety negative. One leads to relatively productive goal-directed behaviors whereas the other is generally unproductive and wouldn't be part of a goal-directed (other than escape/avoid) enterprise. Another way of saying it is that hypomania as an emotional state would probably involve an impulse to 'approach' certain things/outcomes whereas the emotional state of anxiety would be more characterized by an impulse to escape/avoid something. They certainly would feel different to the patient. How does the patient describe their emotional state to you? How do you 'feel' in the room with them?

Finally, depending on your practice environment, the relative base rates of presentations involving 'anxiety' vs. [true] hypomania would be expected to differ markedly with anxiety presentations, on average, being far more prevalent (especially in outpatient settings but even in inpatient settings).

Edit: I apologize, I just now realized you stipulated something you call 'irritable hypomania' in your original post. I wasn't aware that there was such a thing. My understanding (which may be outdated) was that often full-blown mania proceeds into the territory of irritability/dysphoria. I wasn't aware that this was a characteristic of hypomania. From a quick Google search I see that the field has developed a more 'nuanced' understanding of the concept of hypomania to include dysphoria (but...this is distinct from the concept of a 'mixed' episode?).
 
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Significantly more often than not ssris don't cause a manic switch.
I agree with this and was just saying this as well. I have never seen this happen where I was convinced it was the SSRI and not just an episode of mania/hypomania. I think if you dont know for sure, its better to go on the side of caution and use the least invasive/most tolerable prescribing method and assessing response.

Hypomania, I look for it being episodic, with prolonged periods of relative stability, or at least somewhat. With anxiety, i look for persistence, most days, for years unless some intervention was done to intervene. I do find hypomania somewhat hard to diagnose at times, because I agree that many disorders mimic it and patients arent the best historians.
 
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Is there a reduced need for sleep, as opposed to difficulties with sleep resulting in feeling tired.
 
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Is there a reduced need for sleep, as opposed to difficulties with sleep resulting in feeling tired.
Yes, this. I feel like I often have to spell this out to patients multiple times...there is a difference between not being able to fall asleep (and feeling tired the next day), and feeling as though you don't need to sleep.
 
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I agree with this and was just saying this as well. I have never seen this happen where I was convinced it was the SSRI and not just an episode of mania/hypomania.

Really? I saw it twice early in my career, where the SSRI clearly precipitated a first lifetime manic episode. I'm now very careful about unopposed SSRIs in people who smell even a little bit cyclothymic.
 
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Really? I saw it twice early in my career, where the SSRI clearly precipitated a first lifetime manic episode. I'm now very careful about unopposed SSRIs in people who smell even a little bit cyclothymic.
Really? What do u give for these people?
 
Really? I saw it twice early in my career, where the SSRI clearly precipitated a first lifetime manic episode. I'm now very careful about unopposed SSRIs in people who smell even a little bit cyclothymic.
Isn't the summary of our understanding that these folks would have gone on to have bipolar disorder anyway and you merely accelerated the start of it (and were able to diagnosis and treat it then)? I didn't think this is like adolescent THC use with psychosis.
 
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Isn't the summary of our understanding that these folks would have gone on to have bipolar disorder anyway and you merely accelerated the start of it (and were able to diagnosis and treat it then)? I didn't think this is like adolescent THC use with psychosis.
Yes I think that's right. Both these patients had red flags in their histories. One had had a previous hypomanic like episode while on high doses of steroids, but never otherwise. That one had actually been on antidepressants chronically but flipped into mania with a dose increase.

The other had very mild cyclothymia that had previously been well controlled with an extremely regular lifestyle, good sleep, and daily exercise, and had never previously needed medication or any kind of psychiatric treatment. This person had a first lifetime depressive episode in context of starting a job as an EMT with night shifts. I gave them some Prozac and they flipped into an irritable psychotic mania with command AH to kill their pet dog.

I did get the red flags on intake but at that time I gave less credence to this issue (possibly due to having seen one too many borderpolars in residency). I wouldn't give people with those histories unopposed antidepressants now.
 
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Meh I’d rather try an ssri rather than commit the patient to lifelong antipsychotics without even trying something benign that could work
Yeah that's what I used to think too. Until the episode with the hearing commands to kill the dog. Yikes.

Btw antipsychotics aren't my go to for mood stabilization. I like Lamictal a lot for people with depression and these mildly cyclothymic histories that make me afraid to give them an antidepressant alone.
 
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Yes I think that's right. Both these patients had red flags in their histories. One had had a previous hypomanic like episode while on high doses of steroids, but never otherwise. That one had actually been on antidepressants chronically but flipped into mania with a dose increase.

The other had very mild cyclothymia that had previously been well controlled with an extremely regular lifestyle, good sleep, and daily exercise, and had never previously needed medication or any kind of psychiatric treatment. This person had a first lifetime depressive episode in context of starting a job as an EMT with night shifts. I gave them some Prozac and they flipped into an irritable psychotic mania with command AH to kill their pet dog.

I did get the red flags on intake but at that time I gave less credence to this issue (possibly due to having seen one too many borderpolars in residency). I wouldn't give people with those histories unopposed antidepressants now.
n=1 but the one patient I've had so far that flipped to bipolar after an antidepressant (was Prozac btw) had given no bipolar red flags before that. They did have significant generalized anxiety/panic (what the prozac was for) which seems to be very common in bipolar patients.
The patient had a hypomanic episode which they described in surprisingly good detail and then severe depression after that. Tried treating with lamictal but it wasn't working fast enough, added Latuda which seemed to help (vs the lamictal finally kicking in).
 
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Yeah that's what I used to think too. Until the episode with the hearing commands to kill the dog. Yikes.

Btw antipsychotics aren't my go to for mood stabilization. I like Lamictal a lot for people with depression and these mildly cyclothymic histories that make me afraid to give them an antidepressant alone.
I am not sure whether you make a further distinction between cyclothymia and persistent mood lability, the latter which seems to be a really prominent symptom dimension and when present makes me less worried that SSRIs will 'flip' someone than that they won't have a prominent impact on symptoms.
 
Really? I saw it twice early in my career, where the SSRI clearly precipitated a first lifetime manic episode. I'm now very careful about unopposed SSRIs in people who smell even a little bit cyclothymic.

I flipped a depressed 18/19 year old the first time I ever prescribed Prozac. They ended back up on the psych ward about a week later. It was quite an educational experience to see someone go from depressed to full on manic, fighting the police, pressured perseveration on demons/illuminati, etc. It took a while for the Prozac to wash out.
 
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So at a worst case scenario is now a diagnosis is established and you're able to shift treatment, whereas, as mentioned above, they likely would have developed mania/hypomania one day regardless.

I guess I should clarify in the sense that yes I have seen people loaded with serotonergic medications develop manic symptoms as a result of bipolar, but I was moreso just saying that as a whole it wouldnt cause someone to be manic who wasnt already going develop mania anyways (assuming they werent being treated for bipolar) and the mania is essentially a result of the underlying bipolar that was waiting to come out. I feel like these instances would be very hard to predict without a clear clinical history.
 
I am not sure whether you make a further distinction between cyclothymia and persistent mood lability, the latter which seems to be a really prominent symptom dimension and when present makes me less worried that SSRIs will 'flip' someone than that they won't have a prominent impact on symptoms.
I consider cyclothymia, bipolar II, and bipolar I to be more or less arbitrary divisions along the severity spectrum of mood cycling.

Persistent emotional lability I would think of as a different type of symptom, more common with personality disorders, and not related to mood cycling.
 
Start ssri and see what happens
Truuuuuuuuuuu

Low low dose tho

Then move up incrementally and follow up closely until something happens, positive or negative.

Remember, even if they are Bipolar, 1 or 2, just because they are on monotherapy with an SSRI does NOT mean they are going to have significant mood switching. Sometimes they just don’t respond significantly to SSRIs, unlike patients who are more likely to, (i.e., those with non-bipolar disorders with SSRI monotherapy-indicated conditions). Mood switching resulting from an SSRI addition or withdrawal, I have found from my professional experience, is something that happens in those with exquisitely sensitive bipolar diatheses, and is not something that is predictable without knowing the patient for quite some time.

If nothing negative happens, some positive improvement occurs, but the improvement is not to the degree that one would typically expect at the given dosage (symptoms are persisting still significantly), this may be your sign to augment with a mood stabilizing agent (atypical antipsychotic, lamotrigine, lithium).

If a patient truly has Bipolar 2, and you are seeing them in middle age or later, I guarantee you that their history will include the evidence to suggest strongly that they have had hypomanic episodes previously. Bipolar 2’s are notoriously high functioning in early life, able to pull off insanely hard work from needing less sleep than the average person.

A Bipolar 2 who is just presenting in adolescence or young adulthood can be very hard to diagnose without trialing medications and seeing the responses. Young patients can sometimes be a “treat to diagnose” scenario. Though it is taboo to say this in academic settings.
 
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I just had a patient who got hospitalized after 6 months of what's apparently an improvement on SSRI and then became even more aggressive than on intake in the context of "increasing alcohol use" but to me certain resurfacing of unresolved existential issues in therapy.

I think in clinical practice a more likely differential is bipolar spectrum disorder vs. some flavor of personality disorder NOS. Truly non-comorbid GAD/MDD is fairly straightforward diagnostically. The main clinical decision is whether to add a mood stabilizer to someone who doesn't really meet the criteria for bipolar i or ii off-label. Patients who have "genuine" bipolar/SUDs don't give off aggressive vibes even if they are at times unpleasant to work with. People who are in recovery phase of personality disorder also typically give off a different vibe.

Some clues I would watch out for are people who have a tendency to push the treatment frame especially early on and become "situationally aggressive", or give off a vibe of blaming the clinician in some way out of proportion of the clinicians' actions, and prolonged back and forth about fees.

The problem though is that very very often people with personality disorders ALSO benefit from a mood stabilizer. My clinical strategy has been that if I make a diagnostic call, I share with patient and family and then aim to make a decision. I.e. if I diagnose personality disorder I'd say yes I'd put you on low dose Seroquel or lithium off label, and it may help, BUT you STILL must see me X amount weekly or get a DBT therapist, etc. and we will aim to take you off later. Whereas, if someone's genuinely bipolar, the course is typically either very quick recovery after the episode is clamped, and I tell the patient that you must stay on lithium indefinitely, or there's some kind of progressive deterioration that's unresponsive to meds, and then the referral is day program, long term residential, etc.


Differential with pure SUD is usually very straightforward. SUD patients usually feel much better off drugs, but can't resist the craving. People with SUD and PD tell me that they feel WORSE (for a variety of reasons) off drugs, and the main reason they get back on drugs is that they have uncontrolled impulses ("I just want to be bad").


I find in general that when all else fails go back to DSM is the easiest and safest. Basically, if you just do a checklist of the personality disorder criterion you'll see that people with "pure" mood or substance diagnoses don't really have a structural pattern.
 
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