is PMRT needed for this patient?

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Would you offer PMRT , considering the minor risk factors of local relapse?

  • No Need for adjuvanT RT

    Votes: 17 100.0%
  • May benefit from adjuvant RT to the chestwall only

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    17
  • Poll closed .

Kroll2013

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54 years old patient, PS0, no medical comorbidities (obese), no family history of breast cancer
underwent a MRM + LND for left Breast invasive Carcinoma
Pathology showed:
- T4cm, 0Ln/18 dissected pT2N0, free margins
- G3, LVI ++,
- ER 50%, PR 10%, Her2 neg
- Ki 30%

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54 years old patient, PS0, no medical comorbidities (obese), no family history of breast cancer
underwent a MRM + LND for left Breast invasive Carcinoma
Pathology showed:
- T4cm, 0Ln/18 dissected pT2N0, free margins
- G3, LVI ++,
- ER 50%, PR 10%, Her2 neg
- Ki 30%

No PMRT indication. Only indications for PMRT are node positive, positive margins, and MAYBE pT3
 
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Also, where was this tumor in the breast? I don't think it's unreasonable to discuss PMRT here.
I would also consider in her case if she were inner quadrant (combined with G3, extensive LVSI). Not her, but also for inner quadrant TNBC. Admittedly her completion dissection would dissuade me some given lymphedema risk. Along the lines of the high risk node negative patients who benefited from RNI in MA.20 and EORTC 22922. Not saying that its a must here, but I think it could be discussed if inner quadrant.
 
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Not to derail things, but are people in the US commonly doing chest wall only?
according to NCDB patterns, yes. I think if you're giving RT for a positive margin post mastectomy with a negative LND or SLNB, it's reasonable to do chest wall alone
 
I would also consider in her case if she were inner quadrant (combined with G3, extensive LVSI). Not her, but also for inner quadrant TNBC. Admittedly her completion dissection would dissuade me some given lymphedema risk. Along the lines of the high risk node negative patients who benefited from RNI in MA.20 and EORTC 22922. Not saying that its a must here, but I think it could be discussed if inner quadrant.

I agree high risk inner quadrant tumors benefited from RNI on those trials, but those patients were mainly lumpectomy patients. Do you routinely offer RNI for node negative patients who met EORTC criteria? i feel like people rarely, if ever do that. What I do is I include the IMNs for such patients. The idea being with inner/central tumors, IMNs are first echelon that were not sampled by the SLNB or ALND
 
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To add another point, I think considering oncotype score is a good idea if you're considering PMRT in a node negative, ER+ patient
 
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I would have also advised for chest wall only, if it had been a pT3, just like elementaryschooleconomics pointed out.
 
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Not to derail things, but are people in the US commonly doing chest wall only?
For me, if pT3 is the reason for PMRT, it's pretty much the one scenario I'll do chest wall only. It's also the only scenario I've heard for just chest wall from other folks...but I literally don't have a guess as to how often it's done.

It probably comes down to how often we see patients that are pT3 but still node negative. Personally, I can only think of 1 or 2 patients in the past 6-12 months I did this in, and I see a lot of breast.

Anyone got some numbers?
 
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Currently treating T2N0 s/p mast who had positive margin to CW only.
 
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For me, if pT3 is the reason for PMRT, it's pretty much the one scenario I'll do chest wall only. It's also the only scenario I've heard for just chest wall from other folks...but I literally don't have a guess as to how often it's done.

It probably comes down to how often we see patients that are pT3 but still node negative. Personally, I can only think of 1 or 2 patients in the past 6-12 months I did this in, and I see a lot of breast.

Anyone got some numbers?

We looked at NCDB patterns of practice for pT3N0 patient's. of those that received PMRT, 33% received chest wall alone and 67% chestwall/RNI
 
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We looked at NCDB patterns of practice for pT3N0 patient's. of those that received PMRT, 33% received chest wall alone and 67% chestwall/RNI
That's very interesting.

My immediate hypothesis, which is pure anecdote from personal experience/conversation, is that there's a generational divide between those numbers.

For me, PMRT in this setting is "hey, that's a pretty big tumor, it's not crazy to imagine a few cells got left behind". It's node negative, so the tumor didn't "learn" how to go to nodes before it was removed, so why zap the nodes?

But I think the RadOnc zeitgeist for...well, forever I guess, was if you're gonna do PMRT, it better be 3-field.

Maybe I'm wildly off on that, who knows.
 
That's very interesting.

My immediate hypothesis, which is pure anecdote from personal experience/conversation, is that there's a generational divide between those numbers.

For me, PMRT in this setting is "hey, that's a pretty big tumor, it's not crazy to imagine a few cells got left behind". It's node negative, so the tumor didn't "learn" how to go to nodes before it was removed, so why zap the nodes?

But I think the RadOnc zeitgeist for...well, forever I guess, was if you're gonna do PMRT, it better be 3-field.

Maybe I'm wildly off on that, who knows.

agree 100%. The older docs in our department never do chest wall alone for pT3N0. I'm a "younger doc" and have no problem doing chest wall alone if the patient got a good ALND or negative SLNB. At most, i'll do high tangents and include level 1/2.
 
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I think you’re right ESE. On the other hand, since most of the toxicity comes from cheat wall, if you’re treating it seems easy enough to include some of the axilla. If we did more IMRT we would be more creative about how much we treated
 
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I agree high risk inner quadrant tumors benefited from RNI on those trials, but those patients were mainly lumpectomy patients. Do you routinely offer RNI for node negative patients who met EORTC criteria? i feel like people rarely, if ever do that. What I do is I include the IMNs for such patients. The idea being with inner/central tumors, IMNs are first echelon that were not sampled by the SLNB or ALND
Respectfully, I think this is faulty logic. Of course, we probably should never invoke "logic" in a breast discussion. But, in general, recurrence risks after mastectomy are about 20:5:2:2:1 distant:CW:ax:sclav:IMN. And the "1" for IMNs is more like 0.5 nowadays. With or without IMN sampling, we know IMNs have a pretty high involvement rate (up to 20-50%) with ax N+ and inner quadrant location, but an exceedingly low recurrence rate (1% or less) nonetheless. Some back of envelope calcs indicate you must irradiate 1000-1500 IMN stations to prevent one recurrence there. I'm not saying never irradiate them, but to irradiate them and not irradiate the ax/sclav is... well, you know.

For me, PMRT in this setting is "hey, that's a pretty big tumor, it's not crazy to imagine a few cells got left behind". It's node negative, so the tumor didn't "learn" how to go to nodes before it was removed, so why zap the nodes?
Do we mention that the "tumor-to-nodes-to-distant" gestalt has very little to do with the actual behavior/natural history of breast cancer enough? It is a persistent, stubborn illusion...

xJ058vZ.png
 
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CW alone is what I would recommend. ++ LVSI and ER+ at only 50% in a grade 3 tumor has me worried.
 
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CW alone is what I would recommend. ++ LVSI and ER+ at only 50% in a grade 3 tumor has me worried.
I'm sure someone has looked, and it's lazy of me to not google, but my simple brain tells me that min 40% of the cells here are triple negative (I did a PhD where I looked at tons of IHC so I get the caveats, but in the end, the way we determine this characteristic is with IHC), and so I wonder how hormone receptor positivity correlates with outcomes, particularly when ER + PR is well less than 100%. As said earlier, oncotype probably important in this context as we treat HR+ high oncotype more like TN.
 
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I think you’re right ESE. On the other hand, since most of the toxicity comes from cheat wall, if you’re treating it seems easy enough to include some of the axilla. If we did more IMRT we would be more creative about how much we treated
Ah yeah good point - for me, "chest wall alone" takes a pretty good piece of axillary levels depending on how things shake out. No routine bolus or boost (case by case, never say "never" or "always"). Axilla is basically unavoidable with 3D. Now, if/when we move into more IMRT, that's an interesting debate.

I got very frustrated trying to lock down "how do you define RNI" a few years ago because it's (obviously) not universally defined. For me, nowadays, RNI means the whole shebang: SCV, I/II/III, and IMNs. Sometimes I name things "Rotter's nodes" if I want to get a lot of eye rolls.

I guess, here, it depends more on where you draw your superior border. Near as I can tell, down the rabbit hole, the "official" definition for high tangents is "within 2cm of the humeral head". Which...meh, that depends on the height of the person.

Sushil and crew published a paper in PRO in 2018 or so about UPMC trying to standardize the whole Z11/ALND omission thing across the network. Their version of "high tangents" includes explicitly contouring Levels I and II.

So...reflecting on the internal struggle I face in this q3 month contouring adventure, I guess my PTV does include I/II/III, more or less. I don't (or at least haven't) gone out of my way to go up to the coracoid process like I would doing Z11/UPMC "high tangents" style cases.

This is all somewhat pedantic if you're doing 3D anyway, and depends on the skill of your Dosimetry and the body habitus of the patient. Especially because breast/MA20 has the magical "80% IDL" thing.

Thinking about this really rustles my jimmies, because the breast academicians sure draw some hard lines in the sand over topics that have NOT been exhaustively interrogated.
 
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For different reasons I was looking at this paper, which also applies here:

View attachment 354531

I think we understand a lot less than people would have us believe we do in this space, regarding what/how to irradiate, and what specific anatomical regions drive patterns of failure.


Hundred percent agree. We don’t follow these patients with imaging, we don’t have a good feel for where they fail, nodes wise
 
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Ah yeah good point - for me, "chest wall alone" takes a pretty good piece of axillary levels depending on how things shake out. No routine bolus or boost (case by case, never say "never" or "always"). Axilla is basically unavoidable with 3D. Now, if/when we move into more IMRT, that's an interesting debate.

I got very frustrated trying to lock down "how do you define RNI" a few years ago because it's (obviously) not universally defined. For me, nowadays, RNI means the whole shebang: SCV, I/II/III, and IMNs. Sometimes I name things "Rotter's nodes" if I want to get a lot of eye rolls.

I guess, here, it depends more on where you draw your superior border. Near as I can tell, down the rabbit hole, the "official" definition for high tangents is "within 2cm of the humeral head". Which...meh, that depends on the height of the person.

Sushil and crew published a paper in PRO in 2018 or so about UPMC trying to standardize the whole Z11/ALND omission thing across the network. Their version of "high tangents" includes explicitly contouring Levels I and II.

So...reflecting on the internal struggle I face in this q3 month contouring adventure, I guess my PTV does include I/II/III, more or less. I don't (or at least haven't) gone out of my way to go up to the coracoid process like I would doing Z11/UPMC "high tangents" style cases.

This is all somewhat pedantic if you're doing 3D anyway, and depends on the skill of your Dosimetry and the body habitus of the patient. Especially because breast/MA20 has the magical "80% IDL" thing.

Thinking about this really rustles my jimmies, because the breast academicians sure draw some hard lines in the sand over topics that have NOT been exhaustively interrogated.
my @Palex80 move for the day
2a4TslA.png
 
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my @Palex80 move for the day
2a4TslA.png
Oh man, ok first:

1652200920851.png


But second, to clarify: if you have a patient who is clinically node negative, but has 1/3 LN+ for macromets, lets say 9mm and no ECE, everything else is favorable (G2, no LVSI, ER/PR+ HER2-), you're doing regular tangents, yes?

What if it's the same patient but G3 and +LVSI? Same thing? No role for high tangents, either regular or RNI?

(side note my New Year's Resolution was to avoid unanswerable questions but...alas...)
 
Respectfully, I think this is faulty logic. Of course, we probably should never invoke "logic" in a breast discussion. But, in general, recurrence risks after mastectomy are about 20:5:2:2:1 distant:CW:ax:sclav:IMN. And the "1" for IMNs is more like 0.5 nowadays. With or without IMN sampling, we know IMNs have a pretty high involvement rate (up to 20-50%) with ax N+ and inner quadrant location, but an exceedingly low recurrence rate (1% or less) nonetheless. Some back of envelope calcs indicate you must irradiate 1000-1500 IMN stations to prevent one recurrence there. I'm not saying never irradiate them, but to irradiate them and not irradiate the ax/sclav is... well, you know.

Fair points. However, the numbers you're quoting are for all comers. And for unclear reasons, MA.20/EORTC showed DMFS for RNI that may be independent of LRR. So now the question is, does it make sense or irradiate IMN without the rest of nodes? I look at the recent Korean phase III trial that gave RNI +/- IMN inclusion. So the only variable was irradiation of IMNs. DFS was 10% better with RT to IMNs for inner quadrant tumors. To me IMNs for inner quadrant are like Ax for outer quadrants. If i get a patient with an outer tumor, cN0, but ax wasn't sampled for some reason, i would include level 1/2, but not rest. I extend that logic to high risk inner tumors/IMN. Also, keep in mind with inner tumors, you're often doing partial IMN RT unintentionally. I just make it intentional to cover them well. Having said that, I would have no issue with someone doing full RNI if the pt meets MA.20/EORTC criteria
 
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Oh man, ok first:

View attachment 354532

But second, to clarify: if you have a patient who is clinically node negative, but has 1/3 LN+ for macromets, lets say 9mm and no ECE, everything else is favorable (G2, no LVSI, ER/PR+ HER2-), you're doing regular tangents, yes?

What if it's the same patient but G3 and +LVSI? Same thing? No role for high tangents, either regular or RNI?

(side note my New Year's Resolution was to avoid unanswerable questions but...alas...)
I *never* vary my tangent height, because AFAIK every time it's been clinically examined (e.g. the RT post-mortem on Z0011 being an example) it's had zero association with ax recurrence rates much less LRC or OS. (Dosimetric examinations or hypothetical extrapolations don't matter to me that much.) Like meme said though, change my mind! *can opened*
 
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I *never* vary my tangent height, because AFAIK every time it's been clinically examined (e.g. the RT post-mortem on Z0011 being an example) it's had zero association with ax recurrence rates much less LRC or OS. (Dosimetric examinations or hypothetical extrapolations don't matter to me that much.) Like meme said though, change my mind! *can opened*
Arguing about tangent height is like arguing about abortion.
 
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Fair points. However, the numbers you're quoting are for all comers. And for unclear reasons, MA.20/EORTC showed DMFS for RNI that may be independent of LRR. So now the question is, does it make sense or irradiate IMN without the rest of nodes? I look at the recent Korean phase III trial that gave RNI +/- IMN inclusion. So the only variable was irradiation of IMNs. DFS was 10% better with RT to IMNs for inner quadrant tumors. To me IMNs for inner quadrant are like Ax for outer quadrants. If i get a patient with an outer tumor, cN0, but ax wasn't sampled for some reason, i would include level 1/2, but not rest. I extend that logic to high risk inner tumors/IMN. Also, keep in mind with inner tumors, you're often doing partial IMN RT unintentionally. I just make it intentional to cover them well. Having said that, I would have no issue with someone doing full RNI if the pt meets MA.20/EORTC criteria
Arguing about tangent height is like arguing about abortion.
One thing I think we might all agree on: high tangents or low tangents, selective IMN RT or not, stylistic locoregional RT "tweaks" notwithstanding, we will all think in our own head: "Well... I have not seen any downsides to my approach in my patients, so I must be doing it right!"
 
One thing I think we might all agree on: high tangents or low tangents, selective IMN RT or not, stylistic locoregional RT "tweaks" notwithstanding, we will all think in our own head: "Well... I have not seen any downsides to my approach in my patients, so I must be doing it right!"

wait until DEBRA and MA.39 are published. We won't have enough breast ca pts to worry about these minor tweaks :rofl:
 
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For different reasons I was looking at this paper, which also applies here:

View attachment 354531

I think we understand a lot less than people would have us believe we do in this space, regarding what/how to irradiate, and what specific anatomical regions drive patterns of failure.

It's almost as if there exists entire aspects of radiation oncology which would benefit from good academic exploration.

On second thought, forget it, let's just have them expand their business empire, become social scientists, and publish trials specifically designed to not push the field forward.
 
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I *never* vary my tangent height, because AFAIK every time it's been clinically examined (e.g. the RT post-mortem on Z0011 being an example) it's had zero association with ax recurrence rates much less LRC or OS. (Dosimetric examinations or hypothetical extrapolations don't matter to me that much.) Like meme said though, change my mind! *can opened*
Excellent point(s).

I guess there's objective reality, theoretical reality, and medicolegal reality.

Objective reality being, of course, unknowable. I do lean towards your opinion that the evidence is not solid re: this even matters. However, it sounds like I am personally more swayed by hypothetical extrapolations in this scenario than you are, which are...obviously not evidence-based.

In the end, after whispering the Serenity Prayer to myself two dozen times, I ultimately decided to adopt (and somewhat "believe in") the UPMC approach of when/how to use high tangents in the post-Z11/post-Jagsi field design era. I envision being the subject of a malpractice trial where I did regular tangents in a cN0/SLN+ patient who suffered an axillary recurrence. I imagine the plaintiff's attorney trotting out an expert witness who lambasts Z11 while holding a printed copy of the Jagsi paper in their hand, gesturing wildly with it.

High tangents are my armor that I mentally sort of believe in.

1652202837279.png
 
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Not to derail things, but are people in the US commonly doing chest wall only?
Not commonly. Only scenario I would think of is for positive margins not amenable to re-excision in the absence of other risk factors. pT3N0, LVSI, Grade, etc. I would add RNI.
54 years old patient, PS0, no medical comorbidities (obese), no family history of breast cancer
underwent a MRM + LND for left Breast invasive Carcinoma
Pathology showed:
- T4cm, 0Ln/18 dissected pT2N0, free margins
- G3, LVI ++,
- ER 50%, PR 10%, Her2 neg
- Ki 30%

Based on reading just the OP, I do not see an indication. High risk and if triple negative could consider based on Chinese(?) trial showing benefit in pT2N0 TNBC, but this patient would not be considered TNBC.

But second, to clarify: if you have a patient who is clinically node negative, but has 1/3 LN+ for macromets, lets say 9mm and no ECE, everything else is favorable (G2, no LVSI, ER/PR+ HER2-), you're doing regular tangents, yes?

What if it's the same patient but G3 and +LVSI? Same thing? No role for high tangents, either regular or RNI?

(side note my New Year's Resolution was to avoid unanswerable questions but...alas...)
I recommend RNI (meaning Ax I-III + SCV, +/- IMN based on Korean study evaluating primary location) for all macromet pN1a patients, with consideration of omission if a complete ALND has been done and nodal ratio is < 10% (meaning 1/10+)
pN1mi gets high tangents from me. TNBC pN1mi (no neoadjuvant chemo) maybe I'd go to full RNI. Any ypN1mi gets full RNI.

I was not explicitly aware that this was considered 'the UPMC approach', but since it falls in line with my current practice (and everyone loves someone who agrees with their approach), then sure, I will treat as per the UPMC approach.

#StandardizeBreast #BreastIsTheWorstAsAlways
 
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Not commonly. Only scenario I would think of is for positive margins not amenable to re-excision in the absence of other risk factors. pT3N0, LVSI, Grade, etc. I would add RNI.


Based on reading just the OP, I do not see an indication. High risk and if triple negative could consider based on Chinese(?) trial showing benefit in pT2N0 TNBC, but this patient would not be considered TNBC.


I recommend RNI (meaning Ax I-III + SCV, +/- IMN based on Korean study evaluating primary location) for all macromet pN1a patients, with consideration of omission if a complete ALND has been done and nodal ratio is < 10% (meaning 1/10+)
pN1mi gets high tangents from me. TNBC pN1mi (no neoadjuvant chemo) maybe I'd go to full RNI. Any ypN1mi gets full RNI.

I was not explicitly aware that this was considered 'the UPMC approach', but since it falls in line with my current practice (and everyone loves someone who agrees with their approach), then sure, I will treat as per the UPMC approach.

#StandardizeBreast #BreastIsTheWorstAsAlways
Exactly what I do .. but wait, I did train there. But happy to rename it The Evil Way
 
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There are a number of retrospective papers (including from mdacc and mgh) describing higher risk node negative patients (pT1-2N0) s/p mastectomy
-tumor >2cm
-margins <2mm
-lvsi
-premenopausal or age <50
-grade 3

I believe these are the common risk factors. Having 2-3 of these was thought to warrant consideration of pmrt.
Most people agree size is a continuous not binary variable and this patient is getting close to 5cm

That said I’ve mainly limited my occasional pT1-2N0 postmast rt patients to premenopausal and triple negative and usually one more risk factor
 
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Not commonly. Only scenario I would think of is for positive margins not amenable to re-excision in the absence of other risk factors. pT3N0, LVSI, Grade, etc. I would add RNI.


Based on reading just the OP, I do not see an indication. High risk and if triple negative could consider based on Chinese(?) trial showing benefit in pT2N0 TNBC, but this patient would not be considered TNBC.


I recommend RNI (meaning Ax I-III + SCV, +/- IMN based on Korean study evaluating primary location) for all macromet pN1a patients, with consideration of omission if a complete ALND has been done and nodal ratio is < 10% (meaning 1/10+)
pN1mi gets high tangents from me. TNBC pN1mi (no neoadjuvant chemo) maybe I'd go to full RNI. Any ypN1mi gets full RNI.

I was not explicitly aware that this was considered 'the UPMC approach', but since it falls in line with my current practice (and everyone loves someone who agrees with their approach), then sure, I will treat as per the UPMC approach.

#StandardizeBreast #BreastIsTheWorstAsAlways
I have no idea if anyone else is calling it "the UPMC way" or if that's just me.

(I uh, actually call it "Sushil Style")
 
Oh he would treat this pt for sure.
Finally, the MAN in the form of an official letter caught up with that physician :)

on topic: I would not radiate this woman as in the case that has been presented
 
Every 6 months this forum needs a reset and the reset is usually in the form of ‘Wallnenus tells us how much we are wasting our time with RNI’
 
Every 6 months this forum needs a reset and the reset is usually in the form of ‘Wallnenus tells us how much we are wasting our time with RNI’
I can think of no other situation in rad onc where the studies (MA20, EORTC 22922) failed to meet their primary endpoints but rad oncs *still* went on and changed their standard of care for essentially everyone similar to patients enrolled on the "failed" trials. And we aren't talking subtle changes or changes of de-escalation or non-irradiation... we are talking irradiating twice or thrice as much normal "uninvolved" tissue with the standard of care switching (with known side effects in doing so). Still baffles me a bit to this day. (And now we have people justifying IMN RT on the basis of the "failed" Korean IMN trial; post hoc analysis... it's a helluva drug). If only we would have had this much self-beneficial-lying-to-ourselves mentality on fraction-lowering and radiation-omission trials! *shakes fist at sky* *continues reading 'Outliers'*
 
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I can think of no other situation in rad onc where the studies (MA20, EORTC 22922) failed to meet their primary endpoints but rad oncs *still* went on and changed their standard of care for essentially everyone similar to patients enrolled on the "failed" trials.
SpaceOAR is doing its best, ya know
 
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They got me on the RNI train. I was snookered. Thank goodness for the Koreans. Back to reality.
 
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I try to make breast as easy as possible for myself. Post mastectomy I treat for N+ and positive margins. If node positive I treat the nodes comprehensively, if positive margin I don’t treat the nodes with the understanding that level 1 and most of level 2 is probably being covered anyways. My old school attendings would always treat nodes if treating post mastectomy but I believe this is an old school way of thinking to avoid hot spots and match line fibrosis in case of retreats which I don’t view as a problem in 3D/IMRT era.

If you want to add T3 into the mix then go ahead, I’ve done it on occasion, but then we start to get into the grey areas I try to avoid. I personally believe that using size as the sole criteria for post mastectomy RT is a bit of a relic of a prior age and so I try to use it as more of a fudge factor in cases I feel uneasy about rather than a hard indication. If using it as a hard indication you need to go through the mental gymnastics of deciding why you give RT for a 5.1cm but not a 4.9cm tumor, or if you give it for 6cm or 7cm or whereever you set the cutoff.

So…I wouldn’t treat this patient.
 
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I can think of no other situation in rad onc where the studies (MA20, EORTC 22922) failed to meet their primary endpoints but rad oncs *still* went on and changed their standard of care for essentially everyone similar to patients enrolled on the "failed" trials. And we aren't talking subtle changes or changes of de-escalation or non-irradiation... we are talking irradiating twice or thrice as much normal "uninvolved" tissue with the standard of care switching (with known side effects in doing so). Still baffles me a bit to this day. (And now we have people justifying IMN RT on the basis of the "failed" Korean IMN trial; post hoc analysis... it's a helluva drug). If only we would have had this much self-beneficial-lying-to-ourselves mentality on fraction-lowering and radiation-omission trials! *shakes fist at sky* *continues reading 'Outliers'*

6fqdbr.jpg


* I don't actually believe this, but internet memes crack me up so I was feeling creative.
 
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