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latest part 2 Q & A

Discussion in 'International Dental' started by denzel, Dec 18, 2005.

  1. denzel

    denzel Member
    5+ Year Member

    Aug 21, 2004
    Likes Received:
    The folowing are some of the latest questions, please try to post answers,

    1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for
    fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this
    a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
    b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
    c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
    d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
    e. may released hydrogen gas during setting

    2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
    a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
    b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
    c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
    d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
    e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

    3 Which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
    physiological rest position?
    a. 0.0-0.15 mm
    b. 2.0-4.0 mm
    c. 4.5-5.5 mm
    d 6.0-8.0 mm

    4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
    following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
    a. heat
    b. X ray
    c. Magnetism
    d. electricity
    e. visible light

    5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
    of the following?
    a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
    b. poor carving
    c. did not wedge the matrix band

    6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
    a. 1.5-2.0 years
    b. 2.5-3.0 years
    c. 3.5-4 years
    d. >4 years

    7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
    condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
    a. admixed
    b. spherical
    c. lathe-cut
    d. high-copper
    e. conventional

    9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
    a. the substrate
    b. the bacterial types
    c. the bacterial number
    d. the bacterial virulence
    e. the host's susceptibility

    10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
    frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
    true gain in clinical attachment.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
    d. the first statement is false, the second is true

    11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of
    edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic
    loading of the bone
    a. delayed loading
    b. endosteal loading
    c. sequential loading
    d. progressive loading
    e. mucoperiosteal loading

    12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
    swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
    radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
    following is the MOST likely diagnosis
    a. leukemia
    b. dentigerous cyst
    c. ossifying fibroma
    d. osteoma
    e. hyperparathyroidism

    13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
    which of the following
    a. more expansion and more strength
    b. more expansion and less strength
    c. less expansion and more strength
    d. less expansion and less strength

    14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
    a. oxycodone
    b. ibuprofen
    c. carbamazepine
    d. hydrocortisone
    e. acetylsalicylic acid

    15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
    a. depression
    b. psychosis
    c. sociopathy
    d. schizotypical behavior
    e. passive-aggressive behavior

    16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
    the primary dentition
    a. swelling
    b. pulp testing
    c. spontaneous pain
    d. internal resorption

    17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
    considered to be superior to the diamond technique
    a. it is less traumatic
    b. it is technically easier
    c. it requires fewer sutures
    d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
    e. it allows for closure by secondary intention

    18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
    a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
    b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
    c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
    d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
    e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

    19 which of the following describes clindamycin
    a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
    b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
    c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
    d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
    e. is effective against most anaerobes

    20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving
    the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
    a. margines have been ill-defined
    b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
    c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
    d. impressions or models are inaccurate

    21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
    management of an ambulatory patient
    a. impaired communication
    b. apparent insensitivity to pain
    c. lack of intellectual development
    d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
    e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

    22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
    a. necrotic pulp tissue
    b. amalgam restoration
    c. precipitation of metallic salts
    d. silver-containing root canal sealers

    25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
    a. improper waxing
    b. overextension of borders
    c. errors in registering jaw relations
    d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures

    26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
    a. trauma from occlusion
    b. the nutrient canals
    c. the periodontal ligament
    d. the course of the vascular channels

    27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
    a. 6
    b. 8
    c. 10
    d. 12
    e. 14

    28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar
    with four canals
    a. oval
    b. trapezoidal
    c. triangular
    d. round

    30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
    a. pain
    b. closed lock
    c. reciprocal click
    d. temporal headache
    e. decreased range of motion

    31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist
    should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these
    forces, then this indicated the need to
    a. tighten the clasps
    b. adjust the occlusion
    c. reline the base area
    d. remake the partial denture
    e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive

    32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
    a. gingivectomy
    b. gingival curettage
    c. S & R
    d. debridement surgery
    e. osseous surgery

    33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST
    important for the dentist to consider which of the following
    a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
    b. the child’s diet and caries activity
    c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
    d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.

    34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is
    a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
    b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
    c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious

    35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
    a. hypertension
    b. angina pectoris
    c. coronary infarct
    d. paroxysmal tachycardia
    e. congestive heart failure

    36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for
    a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
    b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
    c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
    d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
    e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct

    37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either
    a high or low oxygen containing environment
    a. enteric organism
    b. obligate anaerobes
    c. facultative organism
    d. synergistic organism
    e. microaerophilic organism

    38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
    a. avulsion
    b. concussion
    c. lateral luxation
    d. intrusive luxation
    e. extrusive luxation

    39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
    a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
    b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
    c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
    d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
    a. porphyria
    b. progeria
    c. acrodynia
    d. cystic fibrosis
    e. congenital heart disease
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