law of indepedent assortment

[Farcus]

Ok I know the rule that each pair of alleles segregates independently of each other during gametes formation. So basically the rule is saying that during metaphase I of meiosis the positioning of homologous chromosome 1(X,Y) can have two positioning X,Y or Y,X and then separate following anaphase, this assortment of chromosome have no bearing or effect on the assortment of homologous chromosome 2 (A,B) So its safe to assume that this correspond to homologous chromosomes right?

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