tdod Full Member 10+ Year Member Jun 15, 2014 #1 Advertisement - Members don't see this ad Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø)
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø)
goft20 Do Right and Kill Everything Removed 10+ Year Member Jun 15, 2014 #2 V and fmag have a direct relationship. So as one goes up the other does as well. I hate physics. Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk Upvote 0 Downvote
V and fmag have a direct relationship. So as one goes up the other does as well. I hate physics. Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
D DenTony11235 Jun 15, 2014 #3 tdod said: Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø) Click to expand... Can you clarify what you mean? A particle with a greater velocity will definitely experience a greater B, but what's that have to do with mass spec? Upvote 0 Downvote
tdod said: Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø) Click to expand... Can you clarify what you mean? A particle with a greater velocity will definitely experience a greater B, but what's that have to do with mass spec?
Skizye Full Member 10+ Year Member Jun 15, 2014 #4 In a mass spectrometer the magnetic field provides a conservative centripetal force. So mv^2/r = qvb, solve for r and you can see that v and r are directly related. Upvote 0 Downvote
In a mass spectrometer the magnetic field provides a conservative centripetal force. So mv^2/r = qvb, solve for r and you can see that v and r are directly related.
gettheleadout MD Moderator Emeritus Verified Member 10+ Year Member Verified Expert Jun 16, 2014 #5 tdod said: Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø) Click to expand... It's not "counteracted" because the F_mag vector is perpendicular to the particle velocity vector. Upvote 0 Downvote
tdod said: Why isn't the particle's increased velocity counteracted by the increased magnetic force (since Fmagnetic = q v b sinø) Click to expand... It's not "counteracted" because the F_mag vector is perpendicular to the particle velocity vector.