Hello guys,
i need your help in solving mcq's that i will give in this post
actualy these are from the previous exams of pakistan medical and
dental council exam for foreign graduates(doctors who study abroad and
want to be registered in pakistan) i have 700 questions but without
answers so please help me in solving them as i have very limited time
because i have to take the next exam in september.Here are the first
200 mcq's,remaining 500 i will post latter.please cooperate and
participate.
thanx from Feras
1.Regarding the brachial plexus:
a.suprascapular nerve originates from the upper trunk.
b.the divisions lie behind the subclavius.
c.the posterior cord supplies the muscles in the posterior compartment.
d.the cord of the brachial plexus lie lateral to the 1st part of the
axillary artery.
e.lower trunk is likely to be damaged when the neck is suddenly turned
to the other side.
2.The median nerve is damaged at the elbow
a.there is loss of sensation at the tips of all the fingers.
b.opposition is made impossible.
c.adduction of the thumb is impossible.
d.flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is affected.
e.flexion of the wrist is made impossible.
3.Regarding the flexor retinaculum
a.apex of palmar aponeurosis is attached to it.
b.the tenden of flexor carpiradialis lies in a separate tunnel within it.
c.superficial palmar branch of the median nerve lies superficial to it.
d.ulnar nerve passes through the carpel tunnel.
e.abductor brevis partly arrises from it.
4.in the middle cranial fossa
a.anterior pitutary receives venous blood from hypothalamo-hypophysial
portal system.
b.ophthalmic nerve divides into its 3 branches.
c.deep cerebral veins drain into the cavernous sinus.
d.internal carotid artery and occulumotor nerve pierce the rough of
the cavernous sinus together.
e.greater petrosal nerve lies deep to the trigeminal ganglion.
5.regaring the orbit
a.superior oblique becomes a pure depressor when the eye is abducted.
b.in the paralysis of the abducent nerve,diplopia occurs when the eye
is turned to the affected side.
c.inferior oblique originates from the annulus of Zinn.
d.partial ptosis occurs in the paralysis of muller's muscle.
e.in ciliary ganglion destruction,dilated pupils occur.
6.regarding the thoracic part of the trachea
a.bifurcation is at the level of the 4th thoracic vertebra.
b.the right bronchus is in line with it.
c.it is related to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve.
d.has a complete cartilage ring at the bifurcation.
e.lymph nodes are present alone both borders.
7.Apex of the heart
a.lies in the 5th intercostal space.
b.is formed by the left ventricle.
c.is supplied mainly by the right coronary artery.
d.is the site for mitral valve sound.
e.is not covered by lungs.
8.the inguinal canal
a.contains the spermatic cord in the male but only fat in the female.
b.is more oblique in the adult then in the newborn.
c.its suprficial ring is protected by the pyramidalis muscle.
d.is absent in the male if the testis is undescended.
e.the conjoint tendon attached to the pectineal line passes behind the
superficial inguinal ring.
9.regarding the appendix
a.can be surface marked on a line joining the umbilicus to the right
anterior superior iliac spine.
b.taenia coli end at the base of appendix.
c.usualy lies in the paracolic position.
d.veins drain to the middle colic and iliocolic vessels.
e.in situs inversus lies in left iliac fossa.
10.inversion of the foot
a.occurs at the talo-calcaneous and talo-calcaneo-nevicular joints.
b.restricted in plantar flexion.
c.consist of abduction of the fore part of the leg.
d.limited by the resistance of the paroneus muscles.
e.inversion and eversion help in walking on rough surfaces.
11.regarding the cell
a.surface area decreases with increasing cell size.
b.mitochondria are made up of 2 membranes.
c.ribosomes are organelles that are synthesized in the nucleus.
d.basal infolding is seen in cells involved in oin transport.
e.unsaturated fatty acids reduce the fluidicity of plasme membrane.
12.Regarding action potential
a.terminated by efflux of k+
b.strenght diminishes as it travels along the axon.
c.skeletal muscle fibers do not require it for contraction.
d.is of shorter duration in cardiac muscle.
e.non-myelinated fibres conduct impulses at a faster rate then in myelinated.
13.true or false
a.spermiogenesis is a process by which muture sperm cells are made
from spermatids.
b.fertilazation usually occurs in the ampulla of fallopian tubes.
c.during the embryonic peroid risk of congenital defects is increased.
d.primary oocytes are formed after birth until puberty.
e.in the maturation division the 2ndry oocytes receives the majority
of cytoplasm.
14.what are the changes that occur at pubert in both males and females
a.increased muscle mass
b.pubic hair
c.linear growth
d.development of interest in opposite sex
e.menarche.
15.the expected physiological findings of metabolic acidosis are
a.increased excretion of HCo3 in urine.
b.hyperventilation.
c.increased ionized serum Ca++ concentration.
d.increased renal secretion of NH4+
e.shifting of O2 dissociation curved to the left.
16.following are likely to cause an apparent resistance to hormone action
a.antibodies to hormones
b.decrease in the number fo hormone receptors.
c.decrease affinity of hormone receptors.
d.decrease hormone transport proteins.
e.post receptor defect.
17.kidney is the main organ for
a.synthesis of urea
b.synthesis of renin
c.production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
d.synthesis of erythropoietin.
e.synthesis of angiotensinogen.
18.A normal bleeding time and a prolonged whole blood clotting time is
compatible with
a.factor viii deficiency.
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit k deficiency
d.liver disease.
e.thrombasthenia
19.A woman who has AB Rh(-) blood group(unsensitized)
a.has agglutinine A in her plasma
b.has agglutinine D in her plasma
c.her father could be O Rh(-)
d.her child could be genotype DD
e.will have to be given RhoGAM after delivering a baby who has Rh(+) blood.
20.Erythropoiesis is stimulated by
a.hypoxia
b.iron deficiency anaemia
c.kidney failure
d.hemorrhage
e.androgens
21.regarding DNA:
a.Uracil is a component of DNA.
b.sugar phosphate bond is a feature of nucleic acid.
c.DNA replication is semi-conservative.
d.purines pair with pyrimidines.
e.complementary nature is necessary for accurate replication of DNA.
22.Gluconeogenesis
a.is an energy consuming process
b.ysing is a gluconeogenic substrate
c.fatty acids are gluconeogenic substrates
d.glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis
e.Metformin acts by decreasing gluconeogenesis
23.True/false
a.increase insulin/glucagon ratio favours ketogenesis
b.ketone bodies are water soluble
c.plasma insulin levels are higher in obese diabetics then in lein diabetics
d.insulin resistance is a common finding in tissue injury
e.brain starts to utilize ketone bodies following a 24 hour fast.
24.in the well fed state
a.the adipose tissue is lipogenic
b.the liver is gluconeogenic
c.the brain uses ketone bodies.
d.insulin/glucagon ratio is low
e.a person has a positive N balance
25.A hypercholesterolaemic patient is correctly advised
a.use gingerly oil or soya bean oil for cooking
b.increase the intake of dark green leafy vegetables and fruits
c.resort the regular physical execise
d.avoid excessive consumption of alcohol
e.increase the intake of eggs
26.regarding pigmentation
a.lipofuscine deposition is associated with aging
b.Neurofibromatosis is associated with hypopipigmentation
c.Haemosiderosis is the deposition of Fe in the liver and spleen
d.bilirubin pigment is derived from haemoglobin
e.pneumoconiosis is caused by the deposition of melainin in lungs
27.Healing in open wounds is associated with
a.granulation tissue formation
b.contraction is involved
c.vit C is necessary for proper wound healing
d.necrotic material is removed by macrophages
e.infection
28.true or false
a.atrophy results in an invariable decrease in the size of organ
b.hyperplasia is a pre-malignant change
c.metaplasia is a process that occurs in epithelial and connective tissues.
d.hyperplasia is irreversible.
e.hypertrophy results in increased cell number
29.true or false regarding neoplasms
a.sarcoma is a malignant epithelial tumor
b.sarcoma commonly metastasize to lymph nodes
c.lymphoma is a benign lymphoid tumor
d.melanoma is a malignant tumor in melanin producing cells of retina
and epidermis
e.benign tumors are commonly charatcterzied by atypical mitotic figures
30.patchy hyperpigmentation is seen in
a.Peutz'-Jeghers syndrome
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c.vitiligo
d.Addison's disease
e.haemochromatosis
31.paracetamol
a.is a strong analgesic
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
c.should not be given to children less then 12 years of age
d.contra-indicated in pregnancy
e.acute liver failure results in overdose
32.regarding the principles of anti-microbial therapy:
a.microbes must be isolated before anti-microbial therapy is started.
b.previous infections of microbes in a community is of no value when
treating a patient
c.when treating a patient with antimicrobials if the patient is
improving it is always due to the antimicrobial therapy
d.samples (swabs or specimens) should normaly be taken before
antimicrobial therapy is started
e.anti-microbial therapy is always,treating microbes with appropriate
anti-microbials.
33.true of false regarding pharmacokenetics
a.plasme elimination half life means the time needed for a 50%
reduction of plasma concentration of a drug
b.a drug with a high first pass metabolism is not given sub-lingually
c.4-5 t1/2 are enough to produce a steady state concentration of a
drug in plasma
d.clearance is the governing factor determining the plasma
concenration of that drug
e.monitoring of plasma concentration of drugs is a useful guide to therapy
34.true or false
a.the generic name generally indicates the category of the drug
b.drugs are taken only when a person is ill.
c.drug induced disease may result in death.
d.effective drugs not used effectively is a cause of treatment failure
e.drug advertisements give balanced and accurate information
35.true/false about organophasphate insecticide poisoning and management
a.retention of urine is a feature
b.pupil size is used to monitor therapy with atropine
c.atropine is effective at reversing effects of MEP.
d.atropine competes with insecticides for receptor occupation.
e.recovery from poisoning is associated with formation of fresh cholinesterase
36.physiologic effects mediated by stimulation of B-adrenoceptors include
a.bronchodilatation
b.peripheral arterial dilation
c.contraction of pregnant uterus
d.glycogenolysis
e.increase of myocardial contractility
37.Anticholinergic drugs are known to give rise to
a.bradycardia
b.miosis
c.difficulty in passing urine
d.bronchconstriction
e.excessive salivation
38.true of false
a.drugs with narrow toxic-therapeutic ratio are more likely to cause
non-dose related adverse drug reactions
b.in renal failure the plasma elimination half-life of drugs which are
excreted by the kidney is prolonged
c.use of drugs in early pregnancy can have teratogenic effects
d.strong analgesics cause analgesia mainly by central action
e.drugs that are highlt water solube pass throught the blood brain barreir
39.adverse effects of penicillamine therapy includes
a.myasthenia gravis
b.Good Pasture's syndrome
c.nephrotic syndrome
d.SLE-like syndrome
e.aplastic anaemia
40.the following drugs are nephrotoxic
a.methicillin
b.allopurinol
c.rifampicin
d.cimetidine
e.phenytoin
41.true of false
a.the frequency distribution of nearly all biological measurments show
a bell shaped curve
b.about 50% of the observations in a normal distribution have value
higher then the median
c."root-mean-square-deviation" is another name for standard deviation
d.the mean value represents the central tendency of the data
e.in a normal distribution about 49.5% of the observations will fall
between mean value to mean value plus 3SD.
42.in a normal Gaussian distribution
a.the frequency distribution curve is nearly or completely symmetrical
b.the mode,mean and the median are nearly or actually the same
c.the mean plus 2SD includes only about 68.3% of observations
d.the higher the standard deviation,the taller the curve
e.about 70% of the subjects have values above the median in a "normal
distribution"
43.Regarding standard deviaion:
a.is necessary to calculate the co-efficient of variation.
b.is a measure of central tendency in series.
c.can be calculated using the root mean square deviation method
d.is essential is computing the ' r ' value
e.is nearly equal in a "normal distribution"
44.following are the hazzards of polluted water
a.Diarrhoeal illnesses
b.viral hepatitis A and B
c.Weil's disease
r.spread of malaria
e.worm infestation
45.Following are the effective measures to control smoking
a.Health education
b.ban of cigarettes advertisement
c.restriction of smoking in public places
d.imprisonment of somkers
e.increase in prize of cigarettes.
46.Following are food borne diseases
a.Typhoid fever
b.Brucellosis
c.Bovine-tuberculosis
d.cholera
e.AIDS
47.Following are communicable diseases:
a.Measles
b.HIV
c.Scabies
d.Ischemic heart disease.
e.Tuberculosis.
48.Following are primary preventive measures
a.Health education about diseases
b.Vaccination
c.Good nuitrition and enviromental senitation
d.regular medical check ups
e.early diagnosis and prompt treatment
49.Following measures improve mental health in society:
a.Recreational facilities
b.noise control
c.festivals
d.holidays
e.enviromental hygiene
50.Following measures control food borne diseases
a.control of flies
b.hand washing
c.boiling water
d.washing of food before cooking
e.use of tin food
51.Triad of protienuria,oedema and BP in pregnancy is seen in
a.Hydatidiform mole
b.pre-eclampsis
c.ectopic pregnancy
d.Abruptio placentae.
e.renal failure
52.cause of acute salpingitis includes:
a.chlamydia trachomatis
b.streptococcus faecalis
c.E.coli
d.Neisseria gonorrhoea
e.Trichomonas vaginalis
53.characteristic featues of procidentia include:
a.painful
b.cervical ulcer
c.stress incontinence
d.Dyspareunia
e.pruritus
54.Complications of Diabetes Mellitus in pregnancy
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.macrosomia
c.IUGR
d.pregnancy induced hypertension
e.oligohydramnios
55.Polyhydramnios is seen in
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.Myelocele
c.Duodenal atresia.
d.Rh-issoimmunization
e.Renal agenesis(Pottor's syndrome)
56.smoking during pregnancy:
a.leads to low birth weight baby
b.associated with abortion
c.may cause congenital abnormalities.
d.associated with higher incidence of respiratory distress syndrome.
e.should be forbidden
57.Face presentation is associated with the following:
a.Anencephaly
b.polyhydramnios
c.Mentoposterior position
d.deflexed head
e.twins
58.the following are recognised causes of a transverse lie:
a.Bicornuate uterus
b.placenta previa
c.oligohydramnios
d.Twins
e.Contarcted pelvis
59.Vulval dystrophy is:
a.Pre-malignant condition
b.seen in Post-menopausal age commonly
c.assiciated with Pruritus
d.requires histological diagnosis.
e.Extends to perineum
60.In a 30 year old woman who has regular cycles of 28 days and has
bleeding for 8days the recognised causes may include:
a.Endometriosis
b.Fibroids
c.Anorexia nervosa
d.Anovulatory cycles
e.Cystic glandular hyperplasia
61.Gonococci affects the following structures:
a.vagina
b.Tubes
c.cervix
d.rectum in female
e.urethra
62.uterine anomalies cause;
a.pre-mature labour
b.Prolonged labour
c.Dystocia.
d.abortion
e.post-partum haemorrhage
63.Salbutamol given to mother for prolongation of pregnancy causes:
a.Bradycardia
b.Sudden intra-uterine death
c.vasodilation
d.hypoglycemia
e.Dysfunctional labour
64.Progesterone only pill:
a.can be safely given to a woman above 40 years
b.usually causes ammenorrhoea
c.usually causes menorrhagia
d.causes endometrial hyperplasia
e.associated with endometrail carcinoma when given to a post-menopausal female
65.Contra-indication for IUCD:
a.submucosal fibroid
b.intra-uterine infection
c.Pregnancy
d.Primipara
e.valvular heart disease
66.Carcinoma of cervix:
a.more common in unmarried females
b.Dyspareunia is the commonest symptom
c.common in those with multiple partners
e.Cervical erosion is a pre-malignant condition
67.in Pre-eclampsis with DIC:
a.PT and APTT are prolonged
b.there is a thrombocytopenia.
c.Fibrinogen degradation products are present in plasma
d.subsides after delivery
e.can be treated with ant-coagulants.
68.Before application of ventouse the following should be fullfilled:
a.Membranes should be intact.
b.Unengaged head
c.Fetal should be alive
d.cervix should be fully dilated.
e.Bladder should be empty.
69.Incidence of face presentation is increased in:
a.Prematurity
b.Android pelvis
c.Anencephaly
d.Tumor of fetal neck muscles
e.Twin pregnancy
70.The following are true of hydatidiform mole
a.>20% develop choriocarcinoma.
b.HCG levels are high.
c.pregnancy should be avoided for 2 years.
d.should be removed with caesarean section
e.chemotherapy is given to the patient following evecuation.
71.Stress incontinence is recognised to occur in:
a.previous pelvic surgery
b.Cystocele
c.Multiparity
d.Uterovaginal fistula
e.Pelvic tumor
72.recognized cayses of pruvitus valvae include:
a.Lichen sclerosis et atrophcus.
b.Pediculosis pubis
c.Moniliasis
d.Trichomonas vaginalis
e.uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
73.Bishop's score is based on:
a.cervical dilatation
b.cervical softening
c.length of cervix
d.rupture of membranes
e.Engagment of head
74.in a well flexed head:
a.posterior fontanelle is palpable
b.diameter of engagment is 9.5 cm
c.anterior fontanelle is palpable
d.Coronal suture is felt
e.is ideal for vaginal delivery
75.Secondary post-partum haemorrhage is due to:
a.Uterine abnormality
b.Circumvallate placenta
c.Retained placenta
d.endometritis
e.failed lactation
76.in gynecological surgery:
a.a total hysterectomy means removal of uterus,cervix,both tubes and
both ovaries.
b.The Manchester type repair operation includes anterior colporrhaphy
and amputatuon of cervix
c.Ventrosuspension of the uterus is an opration performed to antevert the uterus
d.A wertheim's hysterectomy includes complete vaginectomy.
e.An ovarain cystectomy is the removal of an ovary containing a cyst.
77.The physiological effects of endogenous oxytocin include:
a.relaxation of vascular smooth muscles
b.initiation of milk production
c.an anti-diuretic effect
d.stimulation of uterine contraction
e.hypotension
78.External cephalic version should not be attempted:
a.after antepartum haemorrhage.
b.after 36 weeks of pregnancy
c.when the uterus is bicornuate
d.if there is a multiple pregnancy
e.if the patient has hypertention
79.in a breech presentation:
a.the main danger to the fetus during delivery is from prolapse of the
umbilical caord.
b.during delivery episiotomy is not necessary
c.early pre-term labour is the commonest cause
d.A complete breech has extended legs.
e.Spontaneous version occurs in 20 percent of mothers by the 34th week
of pregnancy
80.During pregnancy the following are normaly elevated:
a.Blood urea
b.the need for iron
c.heart rate
d.blood pressure
e.protein content of urine.
81.the following statements are true:
a.intermittent glycosuria is one of the metabolic changes occuring
during pregnancy.
b.The Hegar;s sign is predictable at 6 weeks of pregnancy.
c.The Goodell's sign of pregnancy is vulvo-vaginal-cervical softening.
d.identical twins are always of the same sex.
e.the administration of oxytoxin after delivery prevents haemorrhage.
82.The clinical features of PEM include:
a.marked muscle wasting and abdominal distension is marasmus.
b.weight loss more then growth ******ation in marasmus.
c.hepatic cirrhosis and hypoproteinaemic oedema in Kwashiorkor.
d.Desquamate dermatosis,stomatitis and anorexia in marasmus.
e.Zn defeciency in Kwashiorkor.
83.in treatment and prevention of severe protein energy malnuitrition(PEM)
a.mortality rates are around 20 % even in hospitalized patients.
b.Correction of fluid and electrolyte balance is vital.
c.restoration of calorie and protein intake can worsen the oedema.
d.fatty liver leads to cirrhosis if calorie intake remains poor.
e.childhood mortality rates in developing countries could be halved vy
the adoption of breast feeding,oral rehydration,growth
rehydration,growth monitoring and immunization.
84.Characteristic features of Rickets inclue:
a.delayed motor milestones and dental eruption
b.Epiphyseal expansion of the lower radius on x-ray
c.Carnio-tabes and epiphyseal swelling of the ribs
d.Pectus excavatum and Harisons sulci.
e.Hypophosphataemia due to secondr hyperparathyroidism.
85.bone growth is ******ed in
a.Cretinism
b.Scurvy
c.Rickets
d.Malignancy
e.Down's syndrome
86.Major criteria for rheumatic fever diagnosis include
a.Carditis
b.erythema nodosum
c.Chorea
d.Arthralgia
e.raised ESR
87.Spina bifida is associated with
a.sacral lipoma
b.post anal dimple
c.fistula in ano
d.Pilonidal sinus
e.meningocele
88.Arnold chiara malformation can cause
a.optic atrophy
b.mental ******ation.
c.ocular palsies
d.flaccid paralysis of limbs
e.Hydrocephalus
89.complications of Measles include
a.Otitis Media
b.Giant cell pneumonia
c.sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
d.arthritis
e.vit A deficiency
90.sequele of meningitis includes:
a.mental ******ation
b.cranial nerve palsies
c.hydrocephalus
d.cerebral palsy
e.chronis diarrhoea
91.Features of Still's disease are:
a.positive rheumatoid factor
b.generalized lymphadenopathy
c.maculo-papular rash
d.cataract
e.Splenomegely
92.UTI in children
a.Proteus is the commonest organism
b.Vesico-ureteric reflux is common.
c.single episode of infection is enough to investigate in detail
d.gentamicin is the drug of choice
e.repeated infections are associated with genito-urinary anomalies.
93.in a boy of 15 ,causes of a combination of ataxia,involuntary
movements and hepatomegely would include:
a.Huntington's chorea
b.Haemochromatosis
c.Wilson's disease
d.ataxia telangiectasia
e.polycystic disease
94.in a neonate
a.a high Apgar score indicates asphyxia
b.hypoglycemia is a complication in small for date babies.
c.the administartion of phenothiazines to the mother in the later
weeks of pregnancy may cause jaundice.
d.respiratory Distress syndrome due to hyaline membrane disease is
associated with diminished surfactant level.
e.Phenylketonuria can be diagnosed within 24 hours of birth.
95.Recognised features of pyloric obstruction in infants include
a.metabolic acidosis
b.diarrhoea
c.projectile vomiting within 30 minutes of feeds
d.oliguria
e.visible gastric peristalsis in the epigastrium
96.Features of Mumps in childhood include:
a.fever,malaise and parotitis
b.hearing loss
c.Orchitis leading to infertility
d.Meningitis
e.Lymphopenia
97.A child presenting with tuberculosis meningitis
a.is likely to have been ill for at least 2 weeks
b.should be notified to the enviromental health officer
c.may incur permanent brain damage.
d.will have raised levels of protein and white cells in the CSF.
e.may have a normal chest x-ray.
98.Infections,if contracted during pregnancy,carry on important risk
of producing a mentaly defected child,are:
a.Mumps
b.hepatitis
c.Toxoplasmosis
d.rubella
e.Cytomegalovirus
99.Weaning food should:
a.be introduced at the age of 1 year
b.be given in addition to breast milk.
c.have a high energy density.
d.have a high fibre content.
e.be free of added sugar and salt.
100.human milk:
a.has a higher protein content then cow's milk.
b.has a lower methionine to cystein ratio then cow's milk.
c.has a lower calcium content then cow's milk.
d.has a lower lactose concentration then cow's milk.
e.has a higher polyunsaturated fat content then cow's milk
i need your help in solving mcq's that i will give in this post
actualy these are from the previous exams of pakistan medical and
dental council exam for foreign graduates(doctors who study abroad and
want to be registered in pakistan) i have 700 questions but without
answers so please help me in solving them as i have very limited time
because i have to take the next exam in september.Here are the first
200 mcq's,remaining 500 i will post latter.please cooperate and
participate.
thanx from Feras
1.Regarding the brachial plexus:
a.suprascapular nerve originates from the upper trunk.
b.the divisions lie behind the subclavius.
c.the posterior cord supplies the muscles in the posterior compartment.
d.the cord of the brachial plexus lie lateral to the 1st part of the
axillary artery.
e.lower trunk is likely to be damaged when the neck is suddenly turned
to the other side.
2.The median nerve is damaged at the elbow
a.there is loss of sensation at the tips of all the fingers.
b.opposition is made impossible.
c.adduction of the thumb is impossible.
d.flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is affected.
e.flexion of the wrist is made impossible.
3.Regarding the flexor retinaculum
a.apex of palmar aponeurosis is attached to it.
b.the tenden of flexor carpiradialis lies in a separate tunnel within it.
c.superficial palmar branch of the median nerve lies superficial to it.
d.ulnar nerve passes through the carpel tunnel.
e.abductor brevis partly arrises from it.
4.in the middle cranial fossa
a.anterior pitutary receives venous blood from hypothalamo-hypophysial
portal system.
b.ophthalmic nerve divides into its 3 branches.
c.deep cerebral veins drain into the cavernous sinus.
d.internal carotid artery and occulumotor nerve pierce the rough of
the cavernous sinus together.
e.greater petrosal nerve lies deep to the trigeminal ganglion.
5.regaring the orbit
a.superior oblique becomes a pure depressor when the eye is abducted.
b.in the paralysis of the abducent nerve,diplopia occurs when the eye
is turned to the affected side.
c.inferior oblique originates from the annulus of Zinn.
d.partial ptosis occurs in the paralysis of muller's muscle.
e.in ciliary ganglion destruction,dilated pupils occur.
6.regarding the thoracic part of the trachea
a.bifurcation is at the level of the 4th thoracic vertebra.
b.the right bronchus is in line with it.
c.it is related to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve.
d.has a complete cartilage ring at the bifurcation.
e.lymph nodes are present alone both borders.
7.Apex of the heart
a.lies in the 5th intercostal space.
b.is formed by the left ventricle.
c.is supplied mainly by the right coronary artery.
d.is the site for mitral valve sound.
e.is not covered by lungs.
8.the inguinal canal
a.contains the spermatic cord in the male but only fat in the female.
b.is more oblique in the adult then in the newborn.
c.its suprficial ring is protected by the pyramidalis muscle.
d.is absent in the male if the testis is undescended.
e.the conjoint tendon attached to the pectineal line passes behind the
superficial inguinal ring.
9.regarding the appendix
a.can be surface marked on a line joining the umbilicus to the right
anterior superior iliac spine.
b.taenia coli end at the base of appendix.
c.usualy lies in the paracolic position.
d.veins drain to the middle colic and iliocolic vessels.
e.in situs inversus lies in left iliac fossa.
10.inversion of the foot
a.occurs at the talo-calcaneous and talo-calcaneo-nevicular joints.
b.restricted in plantar flexion.
c.consist of abduction of the fore part of the leg.
d.limited by the resistance of the paroneus muscles.
e.inversion and eversion help in walking on rough surfaces.
11.regarding the cell
a.surface area decreases with increasing cell size.
b.mitochondria are made up of 2 membranes.
c.ribosomes are organelles that are synthesized in the nucleus.
d.basal infolding is seen in cells involved in oin transport.
e.unsaturated fatty acids reduce the fluidicity of plasme membrane.
12.Regarding action potential
a.terminated by efflux of k+
b.strenght diminishes as it travels along the axon.
c.skeletal muscle fibers do not require it for contraction.
d.is of shorter duration in cardiac muscle.
e.non-myelinated fibres conduct impulses at a faster rate then in myelinated.
13.true or false
a.spermiogenesis is a process by which muture sperm cells are made
from spermatids.
b.fertilazation usually occurs in the ampulla of fallopian tubes.
c.during the embryonic peroid risk of congenital defects is increased.
d.primary oocytes are formed after birth until puberty.
e.in the maturation division the 2ndry oocytes receives the majority
of cytoplasm.
14.what are the changes that occur at pubert in both males and females
a.increased muscle mass
b.pubic hair
c.linear growth
d.development of interest in opposite sex
e.menarche.
15.the expected physiological findings of metabolic acidosis are
a.increased excretion of HCo3 in urine.
b.hyperventilation.
c.increased ionized serum Ca++ concentration.
d.increased renal secretion of NH4+
e.shifting of O2 dissociation curved to the left.
16.following are likely to cause an apparent resistance to hormone action
a.antibodies to hormones
b.decrease in the number fo hormone receptors.
c.decrease affinity of hormone receptors.
d.decrease hormone transport proteins.
e.post receptor defect.
17.kidney is the main organ for
a.synthesis of urea
b.synthesis of renin
c.production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
d.synthesis of erythropoietin.
e.synthesis of angiotensinogen.
18.A normal bleeding time and a prolonged whole blood clotting time is
compatible with
a.factor viii deficiency.
b.thrombocytopenia.
c.vit k deficiency
d.liver disease.
e.thrombasthenia
19.A woman who has AB Rh(-) blood group(unsensitized)
a.has agglutinine A in her plasma
b.has agglutinine D in her plasma
c.her father could be O Rh(-)
d.her child could be genotype DD
e.will have to be given RhoGAM after delivering a baby who has Rh(+) blood.
20.Erythropoiesis is stimulated by
a.hypoxia
b.iron deficiency anaemia
c.kidney failure
d.hemorrhage
e.androgens
21.regarding DNA:
a.Uracil is a component of DNA.
b.sugar phosphate bond is a feature of nucleic acid.
c.DNA replication is semi-conservative.
d.purines pair with pyrimidines.
e.complementary nature is necessary for accurate replication of DNA.
22.Gluconeogenesis
a.is an energy consuming process
b.ysing is a gluconeogenic substrate
c.fatty acids are gluconeogenic substrates
d.glucocorticoids promote gluconeogenesis
e.Metformin acts by decreasing gluconeogenesis
23.True/false
a.increase insulin/glucagon ratio favours ketogenesis
b.ketone bodies are water soluble
c.plasma insulin levels are higher in obese diabetics then in lein diabetics
d.insulin resistance is a common finding in tissue injury
e.brain starts to utilize ketone bodies following a 24 hour fast.
24.in the well fed state
a.the adipose tissue is lipogenic
b.the liver is gluconeogenic
c.the brain uses ketone bodies.
d.insulin/glucagon ratio is low
e.a person has a positive N balance
25.A hypercholesterolaemic patient is correctly advised
a.use gingerly oil or soya bean oil for cooking
b.increase the intake of dark green leafy vegetables and fruits
c.resort the regular physical execise
d.avoid excessive consumption of alcohol
e.increase the intake of eggs
26.regarding pigmentation
a.lipofuscine deposition is associated with aging
b.Neurofibromatosis is associated with hypopipigmentation
c.Haemosiderosis is the deposition of Fe in the liver and spleen
d.bilirubin pigment is derived from haemoglobin
e.pneumoconiosis is caused by the deposition of melainin in lungs
27.Healing in open wounds is associated with
a.granulation tissue formation
b.contraction is involved
c.vit C is necessary for proper wound healing
d.necrotic material is removed by macrophages
e.infection
28.true or false
a.atrophy results in an invariable decrease in the size of organ
b.hyperplasia is a pre-malignant change
c.metaplasia is a process that occurs in epithelial and connective tissues.
d.hyperplasia is irreversible.
e.hypertrophy results in increased cell number
29.true or false regarding neoplasms
a.sarcoma is a malignant epithelial tumor
b.sarcoma commonly metastasize to lymph nodes
c.lymphoma is a benign lymphoid tumor
d.melanoma is a malignant tumor in melanin producing cells of retina
and epidermis
e.benign tumors are commonly charatcterzied by atypical mitotic figures
30.patchy hyperpigmentation is seen in
a.Peutz'-Jeghers syndrome
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c.vitiligo
d.Addison's disease
e.haemochromatosis
31.paracetamol
a.is a strong analgesic
b.is mild non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
c.should not be given to children less then 12 years of age
d.contra-indicated in pregnancy
e.acute liver failure results in overdose
32.regarding the principles of anti-microbial therapy:
a.microbes must be isolated before anti-microbial therapy is started.
b.previous infections of microbes in a community is of no value when
treating a patient
c.when treating a patient with antimicrobials if the patient is
improving it is always due to the antimicrobial therapy
d.samples (swabs or specimens) should normaly be taken before
antimicrobial therapy is started
e.anti-microbial therapy is always,treating microbes with appropriate
anti-microbials.
33.true of false regarding pharmacokenetics
a.plasme elimination half life means the time needed for a 50%
reduction of plasma concentration of a drug
b.a drug with a high first pass metabolism is not given sub-lingually
c.4-5 t1/2 are enough to produce a steady state concentration of a
drug in plasma
d.clearance is the governing factor determining the plasma
concenration of that drug
e.monitoring of plasma concentration of drugs is a useful guide to therapy
34.true or false
a.the generic name generally indicates the category of the drug
b.drugs are taken only when a person is ill.
c.drug induced disease may result in death.
d.effective drugs not used effectively is a cause of treatment failure
e.drug advertisements give balanced and accurate information
35.true/false about organophasphate insecticide poisoning and management
a.retention of urine is a feature
b.pupil size is used to monitor therapy with atropine
c.atropine is effective at reversing effects of MEP.
d.atropine competes with insecticides for receptor occupation.
e.recovery from poisoning is associated with formation of fresh cholinesterase
36.physiologic effects mediated by stimulation of B-adrenoceptors include
a.bronchodilatation
b.peripheral arterial dilation
c.contraction of pregnant uterus
d.glycogenolysis
e.increase of myocardial contractility
37.Anticholinergic drugs are known to give rise to
a.bradycardia
b.miosis
c.difficulty in passing urine
d.bronchconstriction
e.excessive salivation
38.true of false
a.drugs with narrow toxic-therapeutic ratio are more likely to cause
non-dose related adverse drug reactions
b.in renal failure the plasma elimination half-life of drugs which are
excreted by the kidney is prolonged
c.use of drugs in early pregnancy can have teratogenic effects
d.strong analgesics cause analgesia mainly by central action
e.drugs that are highlt water solube pass throught the blood brain barreir
39.adverse effects of penicillamine therapy includes
a.myasthenia gravis
b.Good Pasture's syndrome
c.nephrotic syndrome
d.SLE-like syndrome
e.aplastic anaemia
40.the following drugs are nephrotoxic
a.methicillin
b.allopurinol
c.rifampicin
d.cimetidine
e.phenytoin
41.true of false
a.the frequency distribution of nearly all biological measurments show
a bell shaped curve
b.about 50% of the observations in a normal distribution have value
higher then the median
c."root-mean-square-deviation" is another name for standard deviation
d.the mean value represents the central tendency of the data
e.in a normal distribution about 49.5% of the observations will fall
between mean value to mean value plus 3SD.
42.in a normal Gaussian distribution
a.the frequency distribution curve is nearly or completely symmetrical
b.the mode,mean and the median are nearly or actually the same
c.the mean plus 2SD includes only about 68.3% of observations
d.the higher the standard deviation,the taller the curve
e.about 70% of the subjects have values above the median in a "normal
distribution"
43.Regarding standard deviaion:
a.is necessary to calculate the co-efficient of variation.
b.is a measure of central tendency in series.
c.can be calculated using the root mean square deviation method
d.is essential is computing the ' r ' value
e.is nearly equal in a "normal distribution"
44.following are the hazzards of polluted water
a.Diarrhoeal illnesses
b.viral hepatitis A and B
c.Weil's disease
r.spread of malaria
e.worm infestation
45.Following are the effective measures to control smoking
a.Health education
b.ban of cigarettes advertisement
c.restriction of smoking in public places
d.imprisonment of somkers
e.increase in prize of cigarettes.
46.Following are food borne diseases
a.Typhoid fever
b.Brucellosis
c.Bovine-tuberculosis
d.cholera
e.AIDS
47.Following are communicable diseases:
a.Measles
b.HIV
c.Scabies
d.Ischemic heart disease.
e.Tuberculosis.
48.Following are primary preventive measures
a.Health education about diseases
b.Vaccination
c.Good nuitrition and enviromental senitation
d.regular medical check ups
e.early diagnosis and prompt treatment
49.Following measures improve mental health in society:
a.Recreational facilities
b.noise control
c.festivals
d.holidays
e.enviromental hygiene
50.Following measures control food borne diseases
a.control of flies
b.hand washing
c.boiling water
d.washing of food before cooking
e.use of tin food
51.Triad of protienuria,oedema and BP in pregnancy is seen in
a.Hydatidiform mole
b.pre-eclampsis
c.ectopic pregnancy
d.Abruptio placentae.
e.renal failure
52.cause of acute salpingitis includes:
a.chlamydia trachomatis
b.streptococcus faecalis
c.E.coli
d.Neisseria gonorrhoea
e.Trichomonas vaginalis
53.characteristic featues of procidentia include:
a.painful
b.cervical ulcer
c.stress incontinence
d.Dyspareunia
e.pruritus
54.Complications of Diabetes Mellitus in pregnancy
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.macrosomia
c.IUGR
d.pregnancy induced hypertension
e.oligohydramnios
55.Polyhydramnios is seen in
a.Multiple pregnancy
b.Myelocele
c.Duodenal atresia.
d.Rh-issoimmunization
e.Renal agenesis(Pottor's syndrome)
56.smoking during pregnancy:
a.leads to low birth weight baby
b.associated with abortion
c.may cause congenital abnormalities.
d.associated with higher incidence of respiratory distress syndrome.
e.should be forbidden
57.Face presentation is associated with the following:
a.Anencephaly
b.polyhydramnios
c.Mentoposterior position
d.deflexed head
e.twins
58.the following are recognised causes of a transverse lie:
a.Bicornuate uterus
b.placenta previa
c.oligohydramnios
d.Twins
e.Contarcted pelvis
59.Vulval dystrophy is:
a.Pre-malignant condition
b.seen in Post-menopausal age commonly
c.assiciated with Pruritus
d.requires histological diagnosis.
e.Extends to perineum
60.In a 30 year old woman who has regular cycles of 28 days and has
bleeding for 8days the recognised causes may include:
a.Endometriosis
b.Fibroids
c.Anorexia nervosa
d.Anovulatory cycles
e.Cystic glandular hyperplasia
61.Gonococci affects the following structures:
a.vagina
b.Tubes
c.cervix
d.rectum in female
e.urethra
62.uterine anomalies cause;
a.pre-mature labour
b.Prolonged labour
c.Dystocia.
d.abortion
e.post-partum haemorrhage
63.Salbutamol given to mother for prolongation of pregnancy causes:
a.Bradycardia
b.Sudden intra-uterine death
c.vasodilation
d.hypoglycemia
e.Dysfunctional labour
64.Progesterone only pill:
a.can be safely given to a woman above 40 years
b.usually causes ammenorrhoea
c.usually causes menorrhagia
d.causes endometrial hyperplasia
e.associated with endometrail carcinoma when given to a post-menopausal female
65.Contra-indication for IUCD:
a.submucosal fibroid
b.intra-uterine infection
c.Pregnancy
d.Primipara
e.valvular heart disease
66.Carcinoma of cervix:
a.more common in unmarried females
b.Dyspareunia is the commonest symptom
c.common in those with multiple partners
e.Cervical erosion is a pre-malignant condition
67.in Pre-eclampsis with DIC:
a.PT and APTT are prolonged
b.there is a thrombocytopenia.
c.Fibrinogen degradation products are present in plasma
d.subsides after delivery
e.can be treated with ant-coagulants.
68.Before application of ventouse the following should be fullfilled:
a.Membranes should be intact.
b.Unengaged head
c.Fetal should be alive
d.cervix should be fully dilated.
e.Bladder should be empty.
69.Incidence of face presentation is increased in:
a.Prematurity
b.Android pelvis
c.Anencephaly
d.Tumor of fetal neck muscles
e.Twin pregnancy
70.The following are true of hydatidiform mole
a.>20% develop choriocarcinoma.
b.HCG levels are high.
c.pregnancy should be avoided for 2 years.
d.should be removed with caesarean section
e.chemotherapy is given to the patient following evecuation.
71.Stress incontinence is recognised to occur in:
a.previous pelvic surgery
b.Cystocele
c.Multiparity
d.Uterovaginal fistula
e.Pelvic tumor
72.recognized cayses of pruvitus valvae include:
a.Lichen sclerosis et atrophcus.
b.Pediculosis pubis
c.Moniliasis
d.Trichomonas vaginalis
e.uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
73.Bishop's score is based on:
a.cervical dilatation
b.cervical softening
c.length of cervix
d.rupture of membranes
e.Engagment of head
74.in a well flexed head:
a.posterior fontanelle is palpable
b.diameter of engagment is 9.5 cm
c.anterior fontanelle is palpable
d.Coronal suture is felt
e.is ideal for vaginal delivery
75.Secondary post-partum haemorrhage is due to:
a.Uterine abnormality
b.Circumvallate placenta
c.Retained placenta
d.endometritis
e.failed lactation
76.in gynecological surgery:
a.a total hysterectomy means removal of uterus,cervix,both tubes and
both ovaries.
b.The Manchester type repair operation includes anterior colporrhaphy
and amputatuon of cervix
c.Ventrosuspension of the uterus is an opration performed to antevert the uterus
d.A wertheim's hysterectomy includes complete vaginectomy.
e.An ovarain cystectomy is the removal of an ovary containing a cyst.
77.The physiological effects of endogenous oxytocin include:
a.relaxation of vascular smooth muscles
b.initiation of milk production
c.an anti-diuretic effect
d.stimulation of uterine contraction
e.hypotension
78.External cephalic version should not be attempted:
a.after antepartum haemorrhage.
b.after 36 weeks of pregnancy
c.when the uterus is bicornuate
d.if there is a multiple pregnancy
e.if the patient has hypertention
79.in a breech presentation:
a.the main danger to the fetus during delivery is from prolapse of the
umbilical caord.
b.during delivery episiotomy is not necessary
c.early pre-term labour is the commonest cause
d.A complete breech has extended legs.
e.Spontaneous version occurs in 20 percent of mothers by the 34th week
of pregnancy
80.During pregnancy the following are normaly elevated:
a.Blood urea
b.the need for iron
c.heart rate
d.blood pressure
e.protein content of urine.
81.the following statements are true:
a.intermittent glycosuria is one of the metabolic changes occuring
during pregnancy.
b.The Hegar;s sign is predictable at 6 weeks of pregnancy.
c.The Goodell's sign of pregnancy is vulvo-vaginal-cervical softening.
d.identical twins are always of the same sex.
e.the administration of oxytoxin after delivery prevents haemorrhage.
82.The clinical features of PEM include:
a.marked muscle wasting and abdominal distension is marasmus.
b.weight loss more then growth ******ation in marasmus.
c.hepatic cirrhosis and hypoproteinaemic oedema in Kwashiorkor.
d.Desquamate dermatosis,stomatitis and anorexia in marasmus.
e.Zn defeciency in Kwashiorkor.
83.in treatment and prevention of severe protein energy malnuitrition(PEM)
a.mortality rates are around 20 % even in hospitalized patients.
b.Correction of fluid and electrolyte balance is vital.
c.restoration of calorie and protein intake can worsen the oedema.
d.fatty liver leads to cirrhosis if calorie intake remains poor.
e.childhood mortality rates in developing countries could be halved vy
the adoption of breast feeding,oral rehydration,growth
rehydration,growth monitoring and immunization.
84.Characteristic features of Rickets inclue:
a.delayed motor milestones and dental eruption
b.Epiphyseal expansion of the lower radius on x-ray
c.Carnio-tabes and epiphyseal swelling of the ribs
d.Pectus excavatum and Harisons sulci.
e.Hypophosphataemia due to secondr hyperparathyroidism.
85.bone growth is ******ed in
a.Cretinism
b.Scurvy
c.Rickets
d.Malignancy
e.Down's syndrome
86.Major criteria for rheumatic fever diagnosis include
a.Carditis
b.erythema nodosum
c.Chorea
d.Arthralgia
e.raised ESR
87.Spina bifida is associated with
a.sacral lipoma
b.post anal dimple
c.fistula in ano
d.Pilonidal sinus
e.meningocele
88.Arnold chiara malformation can cause
a.optic atrophy
b.mental ******ation.
c.ocular palsies
d.flaccid paralysis of limbs
e.Hydrocephalus
89.complications of Measles include
a.Otitis Media
b.Giant cell pneumonia
c.sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
d.arthritis
e.vit A deficiency
90.sequele of meningitis includes:
a.mental ******ation
b.cranial nerve palsies
c.hydrocephalus
d.cerebral palsy
e.chronis diarrhoea
91.Features of Still's disease are:
a.positive rheumatoid factor
b.generalized lymphadenopathy
c.maculo-papular rash
d.cataract
e.Splenomegely
92.UTI in children
a.Proteus is the commonest organism
b.Vesico-ureteric reflux is common.
c.single episode of infection is enough to investigate in detail
d.gentamicin is the drug of choice
e.repeated infections are associated with genito-urinary anomalies.
93.in a boy of 15 ,causes of a combination of ataxia,involuntary
movements and hepatomegely would include:
a.Huntington's chorea
b.Haemochromatosis
c.Wilson's disease
d.ataxia telangiectasia
e.polycystic disease
94.in a neonate
a.a high Apgar score indicates asphyxia
b.hypoglycemia is a complication in small for date babies.
c.the administartion of phenothiazines to the mother in the later
weeks of pregnancy may cause jaundice.
d.respiratory Distress syndrome due to hyaline membrane disease is
associated with diminished surfactant level.
e.Phenylketonuria can be diagnosed within 24 hours of birth.
95.Recognised features of pyloric obstruction in infants include
a.metabolic acidosis
b.diarrhoea
c.projectile vomiting within 30 minutes of feeds
d.oliguria
e.visible gastric peristalsis in the epigastrium
96.Features of Mumps in childhood include:
a.fever,malaise and parotitis
b.hearing loss
c.Orchitis leading to infertility
d.Meningitis
e.Lymphopenia
97.A child presenting with tuberculosis meningitis
a.is likely to have been ill for at least 2 weeks
b.should be notified to the enviromental health officer
c.may incur permanent brain damage.
d.will have raised levels of protein and white cells in the CSF.
e.may have a normal chest x-ray.
98.Infections,if contracted during pregnancy,carry on important risk
of producing a mentaly defected child,are:
a.Mumps
b.hepatitis
c.Toxoplasmosis
d.rubella
e.Cytomegalovirus
99.Weaning food should:
a.be introduced at the age of 1 year
b.be given in addition to breast milk.
c.have a high energy density.
d.have a high fibre content.
e.be free of added sugar and salt.
100.human milk:
a.has a higher protein content then cow's milk.
b.has a lower methionine to cystein ratio then cow's milk.
c.has a lower calcium content then cow's milk.
d.has a lower lactose concentration then cow's milk.
e.has a higher polyunsaturated fat content then cow's milk