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Hi, this quote was found on the wikipedia article on "mental health professional"
"Mental health is socially constructed and socially defined; that is different professions, communities, societies and cultures have very different ways of conceptualizing its nature and causes, determining what is mentally healthy, and deciding what interventions are appropriate."
I was wondering what you all think about this idea that mental health is socially constructed and defined? It seems like what the author is trying to say is that mental health is defined as deviation from the norm, whatever that norm may be in a given society, but I think that this is false. Or, if it is true, then it is equally true for somatic illnesses as well.
In a society where epileptics are revered and treated as prophets, does that mean that epilepsy is not a disease there? Should an epileptic be treated under these circumstances if treatment would actually lower their quality of life by taking away their social status?
Most people would say that epilepsy is still a disease under these circumstances, but the choice of whether to treat is influenced by non-medical factors. Why would a psychiatric disease be different?
I haven't been to medical school, but I was wondering, do you guys learn a rigorous definition for "disease" there? Particularly as applied to psychiatry...
Does an unrepentent pedophile have a disease? He is abnormal but pedophilia isn't exactly harming him... it's harming others. What if he lives in ancient greece or something where it's socially acceptable? Should we say that since mental illness is socially constructed that he has no disease, or that he does have a disease but social factors make treating it less urgent to treat?
In these cases would the presence or absence of biological markers even be relevant? Suppose pedophiles always have protein P in their bile... In a place where pedophilia wasn't considered wrong, pedophilia would seem to be a biologically marked disorder without any harmful symptoms. Or is it once again a real disease that's present in an environment that makes treatment only marginally useful...
It seems like it's in the best interest of biological psychiatry to assert the second option, that it's always a disease but not always needs to be treated...
Or maybe "disease" itself is a normative term and can't be objectively defined?
"Mental health is socially constructed and socially defined; that is different professions, communities, societies and cultures have very different ways of conceptualizing its nature and causes, determining what is mentally healthy, and deciding what interventions are appropriate."
I was wondering what you all think about this idea that mental health is socially constructed and defined? It seems like what the author is trying to say is that mental health is defined as deviation from the norm, whatever that norm may be in a given society, but I think that this is false. Or, if it is true, then it is equally true for somatic illnesses as well.
In a society where epileptics are revered and treated as prophets, does that mean that epilepsy is not a disease there? Should an epileptic be treated under these circumstances if treatment would actually lower their quality of life by taking away their social status?
Most people would say that epilepsy is still a disease under these circumstances, but the choice of whether to treat is influenced by non-medical factors. Why would a psychiatric disease be different?
I haven't been to medical school, but I was wondering, do you guys learn a rigorous definition for "disease" there? Particularly as applied to psychiatry...
Does an unrepentent pedophile have a disease? He is abnormal but pedophilia isn't exactly harming him... it's harming others. What if he lives in ancient greece or something where it's socially acceptable? Should we say that since mental illness is socially constructed that he has no disease, or that he does have a disease but social factors make treating it less urgent to treat?
In these cases would the presence or absence of biological markers even be relevant? Suppose pedophiles always have protein P in their bile... In a place where pedophilia wasn't considered wrong, pedophilia would seem to be a biologically marked disorder without any harmful symptoms. Or is it once again a real disease that's present in an environment that makes treatment only marginally useful...
It seems like it's in the best interest of biological psychiatry to assert the second option, that it's always a disease but not always needs to be treated...
Or maybe "disease" itself is a normative term and can't be objectively defined?