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According to Kaplan neuro, left MLF lesion which leads to internuclear ophthalmoplegia results in:
Lt. eye cannot look right with intact convergence.
1. So why would you still have intact convergence when there is a Lt MLF lesion which is still not going to the adduction which requires for the convergence right? What am I missing here?
It also says with Lt. MLF lesion, Rt. eye exhibits nystagmus.
2. Can anyone explain the Rt eye nystagmus?
Many thanks in advance.
Lt. eye cannot look right with intact convergence.
1. So why would you still have intact convergence when there is a Lt MLF lesion which is still not going to the adduction which requires for the convergence right? What am I missing here?
It also says with Lt. MLF lesion, Rt. eye exhibits nystagmus.
2. Can anyone explain the Rt eye nystagmus?
Many thanks in advance.
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