A
ahmead
171in making radiographs, which of the following controls the mean energy of the x-ray
a. mA
b. kVp
c. focal spot size
d. exposure time
172 what condition is contraindicated to elective root canal therapy
a. AIDS
b. recent MI
c. leukemia
d. radiotherapy
e. 2nd trimester pregnancy
176when moving tooth orthodontically where is the center of resistance
a. at cervical margin
b. half way down the root
c. at apex
d. 2/3 up from the apex
179 what is cement of choice for composite inlays
a. zinc phosphate
b. resin cements
c. polycarboxylate
181 a 9 years old girls tells you that my mom I nagging me all the time to brush my teeth what should you say in response
a. would not say anything
b. clean teeth are healthy teeth
c. if you do not brush your teeth they will fill out
d. I see that you are having a problem with your Mom
183 with a modified Widman flap you mostly reduce bone by
a. adapt the flap margin
b. osseous restructuring
c. removal of infected osseous tissue
d removal of malignancy tissue
185 all are true for a composite inlay except
a. rounded internal line
b. margin in enamel
c. cavosurface bevel
189 biotransformation is all except
a. conjugation
b. covalent bond
c. hydrolysis
d. oxidation
191 principle for occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation
a. retained by occlusal prep
b. self retentive immediately past where grooves coalesce
c. sharp retention
d. cavosurface bevel
196 therapeutic index of a drug indicates the relative
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safety
d. duration
e. solubility
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture
d. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.
a. mA
b. kVp
c. focal spot size
d. exposure time
172 what condition is contraindicated to elective root canal therapy
a. AIDS
b. recent MI
c. leukemia
d. radiotherapy
e. 2nd trimester pregnancy
176when moving tooth orthodontically where is the center of resistance
a. at cervical margin
b. half way down the root
c. at apex
d. 2/3 up from the apex
179 what is cement of choice for composite inlays
a. zinc phosphate
b. resin cements
c. polycarboxylate
181 a 9 years old girls tells you that my mom I nagging me all the time to brush my teeth what should you say in response
a. would not say anything
b. clean teeth are healthy teeth
c. if you do not brush your teeth they will fill out
d. I see that you are having a problem with your Mom
183 with a modified Widman flap you mostly reduce bone by
a. adapt the flap margin
b. osseous restructuring
c. removal of infected osseous tissue
d removal of malignancy tissue
185 all are true for a composite inlay except
a. rounded internal line
b. margin in enamel
c. cavosurface bevel
189 biotransformation is all except
a. conjugation
b. covalent bond
c. hydrolysis
d. oxidation
191 principle for occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation
a. retained by occlusal prep
b. self retentive immediately past where grooves coalesce
c. sharp retention
d. cavosurface bevel
196 therapeutic index of a drug indicates the relative
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. safety
d. duration
e. solubility
2. why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional
9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention
18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function
21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking
22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers
23 the dentist is performing a block of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve into which anatomical area must the local anesthetic solution be deposited or diffused
a. pterygomandibular space
b. pterygopalatine space
c. retropharyngeal space
d. retrobulbar space
e. canine space
24 the anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. the dentist performs this procedure by
a. flattening the incisal edges
b. shortening the incisal edges
c. rounding the incisal point angles
d. moving the facial line angles proximally
e. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally
25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures
34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious
37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism
38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation
41. to enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy
49. a tissue-conditioning materials is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions
a. epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture
d. sharp, residual, mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas
50. maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery.
Therefore, they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prognosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
52. a patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient
a. a lingual bar
b. a lingual plate
c. a lingual bar with a Kennedy bar
d. a lingual plate with interruptions in the plate at the diastemas.
