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This might be confusing but please help me clarify
I understand that nondisjunction @anaphase I = either n+1 or n-1, @anaphase II = either n-1, n+1, or n
So possibilities for human gametes=
@ anaphase I = 22 or 24
@ anaphase II = 22, 23, or 24
So far I believe this is how it would go for a human gamete..
A question (from BC) asks for possibility for nondisjunction occurring @ anaphase I for an oocyte/egg, it will be 2n-1 or 2n+1
possibilities= 45, 47
However I am now confused about some concepts.
The first part with n-1,n+1 is AFTER the nondisjunction AND the whole meiosis completed, describing the resulting haploid...
But this BC question is asking what the resulting fertilized diploid number will be?
Would this not matter because two gametes will always be fusing with a whole number of haploid chromosomes, regardless of possible nondisjunction from the gamete?
I understand that nondisjunction @anaphase I = either n+1 or n-1, @anaphase II = either n-1, n+1, or n
So possibilities for human gametes=
@ anaphase I = 22 or 24
@ anaphase II = 22, 23, or 24
So far I believe this is how it would go for a human gamete..
A question (from BC) asks for possibility for nondisjunction occurring @ anaphase I for an oocyte/egg, it will be 2n-1 or 2n+1
possibilities= 45, 47
However I am now confused about some concepts.
The first part with n-1,n+1 is AFTER the nondisjunction AND the whole meiosis completed, describing the resulting haploid...
But this BC question is asking what the resulting fertilized diploid number will be?
Would this not matter because two gametes will always be fusing with a whole number of haploid chromosomes, regardless of possible nondisjunction from the gamete?
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