It's interesting to note that Kaplan's QBook seems to contradict that USMLEWorld flow chart. On their question #6 of the 2nd OB/Gyn exam:
"A 25-year old woman comes to her physician on the same date each year for her examination and Pap smear. One week later, the Pap smear result is returned as atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?"
"ASCUS is a cytologic diagnosis used to describe abnormal cells that do not fit the criteria for low- or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LGSIL or HGSIL). Although most patients with ASCUS will have normal follow-up Pap smears, a significant proportion (approximately 25%) will have dysplasia. Thus, a patient with ASCUS should have a repeat Pap smear in 3-6 months. If the patient is not reliable and may be lost to follow-up, then colposcopy should be performed immediately. This patient is reliable and can therefore be followed with a repeat Pap smear in 3 months."