occlution question

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pistolpete007

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in an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar contacts the:

A. distal fossa of the mand 2pm
B. mesial marg. ridge of mand first molar
C. distal marg ridge of mand 2 molar
D. distal marg ridge of the mand first premolar

I think the answer is B....as kaplan says lingual cusp of max 2pm contacts the mes marg ridge of first molar and DMR of 2pm

but the answer is A...WHY? B is the most accurate answer isnt it?
 
in an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar contacts the:

A. distal fossa of the mand 2pm
B. mesial marg. ridge of mand first molar
C. distal marg ridge of mand 2 molar
D. distal marg ridge of the mand first premolar

I think the answer is B....as kaplan says lingual cusp of max 2pm contacts the mes marg ridge of first molar and DMR of 2pm

but the answer is A...WHY? B is the most accurate answer isnt it?

Ideal intercuspal position is tooth to tooth (cusp to fossa) relationship. What you are describing is a tooth to two teeth relationship which is considered normal but not ideal.
 
but how come the decks say max 2nd premolar should occlude in the distal triangular fossa of 2nd mand premolar? - card 80. are they talking about normal and not ideal as well then?

so then is the general rule:

--for NORMAL occlusion - max 2nd premolar should occlude in the distal triangular fossa of 2nd mand premolar

--for IDEAL occlusion - max 2nd premolar should occlude in the mesial marginal ride of mand first molar and distal marginal ridge of 2nd premolar
 
but how come the decks say max 2nd premolar should occlude in the distal triangular fossa of 2nd mand premolar? - card 80. are they talking about normal and not ideal as well then?

so then is the general rule:

--for NORMAL occlusion - max 2nd premolar should occlude in the distal triangular fossa of 2nd mand premolar

--for IDEAL occlusion - max 2nd premolar should occlude in the mesial marginal ride of mand first molar and distal marginal ridge of 2nd premolar

all teeth can have either a tooth-tooth or a tooth-two teeth relationship. they will either sit in fossa's or on 2 marginal ridges. it just depends on the answer choices for the question. ideal = cusp to fossa, normal variant = cusp to 2 marginal ridges.
 
awesome explanation! thanks so much for elaborting that really helps! so i guess lesson is to make sure we pick up on if they're asking for ideal or normal if both of these tempting choices, which if its anything like the asda papers i guess both options will be there.

thanks again 🙂
 
in an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar contacts the:

A. distal fossa of the mand 2pm
B. mesial marg. ridge of mand first molar
C. distal marg ridge of mand 2 molar
D. distal marg ridge of the mand first premolar

I think the answer is B....as kaplan says lingual cusp of max 2pm contacts the mes marg ridge of first molar and DMR of 2pm

but the answer is A...WHY? B is the most accurate answer isnt it?
Because the lingual cusps of maxillary premolars are turned towards mesial!!! That is what i read in 2-3 places!!!
Hope this helps!
 
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