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A new NBME 15 is out! Here is the official discussion page. How did you guys feel about this nbme?
does anyone know what tubular hydrostatic pressure refers to? i assumed that it was the same thing as glomerular hydrostatic pressure but apparently that's not the case, i'm now thinking it may refer to bowman's space/capsular hydrostatic pressure.
also it was mentioned earlier that the brain pic was an angular gyrus lesion.. but i looked that up and the symptoms of that are completely different (gerstmann syndrome) than wernickes. gerstmann is more to do with agraphia, acalculia. so if this was indeed wernicke's how come the lesion is not on the superior temporal gyrus?
also someone commented earlier that the diabetic wouldn't have any endogenous insulin secretion after 30 years, but most diabetic drugs require islet function to work like sulfonylureas so they still have some insulin secretion...did anyone get that question right? normal values for insulin secretion when fasting are 5 to 20
aaah excellent call on the atrophy/amyloid issue, didn't occur to me.. and thanks for confirming it was indeed superior temporal gyrus.I don't recall the first question you're asking
The lesion IS on the superior temporal gyrus. Just google "wernicke's" and look at an image.
The lady was using insulin (pretty sure it said Insulin not other drugs)...the answer is 1. She has long standing diabetes after 30 years you would expect the beta cells to be filled with amyloid, they would not be working. Even if they weren't filled with amyloid they'd be atrophied because of INSULIN use, instead of a drug that works on beta cells (like sulfonylureas).
aaah excellent call on the atrophy/amyloid issue, didn't occur to me.. and thanks for confirming it was indeed superior temporal gyrus.
the filtration pressure referred to bilateral hydronephrosis, which i'm guessing refers to ureteral obstruction, which would produce an increase in hydrostatic pressure in bowman's space. however that was not an answer choice. the other answer choice referred to changes in the glomerular, tubular, and interstitial hydrostatic and oncotic pressure.
i thought interstitial= bowman's space
glomerular= GC
tubular=??
does anyone know what tubular hydrostatic pressure refers to? i assumed that it was the same thing as glomerular hydrostatic pressure but apparently that's not the case, i'm now thinking it may refer to bowman's space/capsular hydrostatic pressure.
also it was mentioned earlier that the brain pic was an angular gyrus lesion.. but i looked that up and the symptoms of that are completely different (gerstmann syndrome) than wernickes. gerstmann is more to do with agraphia, acalculia. so if this was indeed wernicke's how come the lesion is not on the superior temporal gyrus?
also someone commented earlier that the diabetic wouldn't have any endogenous insulin secretion after 30 years, but most diabetic drugs require islet function to work like sulfonylureas so they still have some insulin secretion...did anyone get that question right? normal values for insulin secretion when fasting are 5 to 20
finally got around to reviewing my nbme 15, from reading through this thread to find the answers, all I can say is dang a lot of you all over think things. Just focus on the most obvious answer based on the facts in first aid and don't freak yourselves out, if your spending more like like 15 seconds of "hard thinking" and its not a calculation or one of the up/down arrow problems, your probably just talking yourself out of the right answer.
Interstitial is between the tubules/nephron segments. Don't recall the question but it interstitial pressure shouldn't have really any impact on filtration fraction/GFR/hydrostatic or oncotic pressure. In this case I believe they are using tubular to indicate Bowman's space as increased tubular pressure/hydrostatic pressure (from hydronephrosis) will also increase the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule leading to a decreased GFR and FF.
I do not remember the question you are talking about, but i think that, glomerular hydrostatic pressure refers to the pressure that is in the glomerulus made up of the afferent arteriole, and efferent arteriole. So increasing glomerular hydrostatic pressure, means that there is a higher glomerular filtration rate. That would occur, for example, when you dilate the afferent arteriole and constrict the efferent. On the other side you have the capsular hydrostatic pressure, that is the pressure that is inside the bowman's capsule and then the tubules, and therefore, opposite to the glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
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Check that img. Hope that clears out your doubt.
The brain image question, I got it wrong also. In my opinion, the question stem was classic for Wernicke's aphasia, and none of the arrows were pointing exactly at Wernicke's area. I chose the one closest to the superior temporal lobe. For me, the answer looked like it was the arrow pointing to the arcuate fasciculus, which makes no sense to me because that would lead to a conductive aphasia, but oh well... that was the answer, its confirmed.
In the img below, the area numbered (4) is the arcuate fasciculus, in the test image the correct answer was pointing here according to me. 😡
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For your third question, in the long run, DM2 patients will become insulin dependent, basically, their pancreas are done producing insulin, and now the pt requires insulin for survival. HIstologically, the pancreas would be filled with amyloid. That is why, we do not use the classic nomenclature for diabetes, which was insulin dependent diabetics (DM1) and insulin independent diabetics (DM2), because we have improved so much the life expectancy of the "insulin independent diabetics" that they eventually become insulin dependent. The answer for that one was like 1 I think, they didn't have any insulin left.
What is the genetic term for when a patient simply does not get the autosomal dominant allele from the parent?
The pedigree one, I figured it was an AD trait, pt had a 50/50 chance of getting the disease but she didn't. Instead of choosing incomplete penetrance, i just assumed that the proper word was germline mosaicism, since the germline of the parent will presumably be a mosaic of sperm with some having the mutation and some not having it.
oxytocin. causes contraction of uterus and stops bleedingWhat was the one about a girl who has continued heavy blood loss one half hour after delivery? What hormone would you give her? I think the choices were estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin, prolactin, and maybe something else.
And what is the issue here? I was completely lost with this one.
oxytocin. causes contraction of uterus and stops bleeding
it could have been. I was actually thinking that as well but i guess it wasnt relevant.oh cool. so it wasn't some condition or disease or anything, just extra bleeding that needs to be stopped? i didn't know if it was placenta accreta or something haha
oh cool. so it wasn't some condition or disease or anything, just extra bleeding that needs to be stopped? i didn't know if it was placenta accreta or something haha
Can someone explain the seizure one to me?
I put tonic clonic, because although it started on the right side, the question stem eventually says the patient had repetitive lip smacking and picking movement of the hands.
Since hands is plural, this is presumably on both sides of the body and no longer a partial seizure, right? And to add to it, the stem describes the patient as extending and stiffening the arm to, which seems to describe tonic-clonic. Thanks!
1) I don't remember what the exact answer was, maybe something about tell me the most pressing issue so we can tackle that? But the one you chose assume she had emotional trauma without her ever mentioning it, which is why thats wrong.
Yeah, the answer for that one was to schedule further appointments to assess the symptom that bothered her the most, or something among those lines. I got it wrong also, I went for the emotional trauma one.
2) I was choosing between those two as well, I ended up choosing C-peptide.Since it said latest drawn blood specimen, that shoudl take care of your concern about needing to run additional tests. Also I questioned the word "confront" (even though a previous behavioral question required you to confront the athlete about steroid use)
Yes, C-peptide was the answer, you already have her blood, so you might as well run it.
3) I got this wrong, it was lack of blinding between groups. Something about the difference between external and internal validity. Hopefully someone can elaborate.
All of the answers presented here would cause bias, I think this question was very difficult because all of them were right. But the strongest 2 choices were that the measuring tool was too subjective, and the lack of blinding. Not having parents blinded on whether they were receiving dextrometorphan or just nothing would cause the greatest bias. Just imagine, a physician comes to you, hands over a questionnaire about how bad was your child's cough and gives you nothing, and next to you is another study subject receiving the same questionnaire but also getting some dextrometorphan for their child. Biased. You need to give them a placebo, without them knowing it.
The patient clearly loses consciousness, making it a complex type seizure. But all of the brain isnt firing, so its just partial. The generalized ones, like the tonic clonic affects all of the body.
These partial complex are common in children, and they can have automated movements, like lip smacking, hand flapping, sometimes even walking.
Yeah, the answer for that one was to schedule further appointments to assess the symptom that bothered her the most, or something among those lines. I got it wrong also, I went for the emotional trauma one..
i thought the answer to this one was the undergoing psychiatric exam?
isn't assessing one complaint at a time kind of like rationing/limiting resources for a patient?
i thought the answer to this one was the undergoing psychiatric exam?
isn't assessing one complaint at a time kind of like rationing/limiting resources for a patient?
JP - I think that answer was smoking. Not sure about First Aid.
I wanted to confirm one of my incorrects.
Previously healthy 35 y/o hypoxemia from barbiturates. I believe the answer is
D. PO2 50, PCO2 80, A-a 10.
Thanks.
Question on the 6 yo presenting with Tanner stage 2, and asked what percentile he would be if left untreated. Not even sure what disease they are trying to get at...assume his height/etc would be higher than normal? Any help would be awesome!
Essentially getting at precocious puberty (dont give a cause) just want you to know that initially the height will be above normal (75th percentile) and there growth plates will fuse earlier leading to a shorter person than normal (25th percentile) as an adult.
Couple questions for you guys!
1. The old woman with the Ca around 8 and really really high PTH-muscle pain exacrbated by activity-any idea. I put primary hyperPTH but that was wrong.
2. Vignette of a albino (white skin, hair, blue eyes) child-asks what the number of melanocytes and melanin would be, I assume its decreased melanocytes and normal melanin?
3. Right wrist injury, not a fracture in 15 y/o. Point tenderness to palpation of radial aspect between abductor pollicis longus and extensor brevis tendons-asks for sequelae. Put subluxation of trapezium, wrong. Could it be damage to median N.?
4. 18 y/o trys suicide w/ 100 ASA tablets-two days later you find blood in stool, her Hb conc is 12, what else would you expect to find abnormal?
I put platelet count, but that was incorrect.
5. newborn with esophagela atresia, what germ layer is the origin of the cells filling the lumen? Endoderm? I suck at embryo
Thanks guys
1. If the patient has high PTH and low Ca then it cannot be primary hyperparathyroidism. It has to be secondary to something. I do not remember the question to tell what was the cause.
2. In albinos there are normal melanocytes and decreased production of melanin. As opposed to vitiligo where there is destruction of melanocytes.
3. Cannot remember, but I think it was median nerve dmg.
4. cannot remember the other answer choices.
5. Yes, endoderm is the right answer.
Thanks dude, totally miffed the albino Question-I new that
Yeah I had between median and the subluxation and went with the incorrect answer I guess
The others were like increased PT, Increased Bleeding time, decreased platlets etc.. tough question I though
The other answer choices for the old lady were like osteomalacia, and metastatic breast cancer I believe with some other stuff thrown in
I didn't like the colon cancer question which showed the picture of the liver. I remember Pathoma talking about the cancers that spread by hematogenous route, and colon cancer isn't one of them. Chose "direct extension" for that, and got it wrong. 🙁
Ive never read pathoma, but that seems wrong. Colon cancer will almost always metastasize to liver through the portal circulation.
Think I already know the answer to this one but not sure:
A 25 yr old woman--- comes with general malaise and facial rash for 1 week. she has a10 yr H/O episodes of pleurisy and arthritic painin peripheral joints. P/E shows an malar reash that does not involve nasolabial folds. results of cardiolipin ab, anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm ab assays are positive. which of the foll hemat abnormalities is most likely in this patient?
a--HUS
b--macrocytic anemia
c--multiple nucleated RBCs
c--rouleax formations
d--thrombocytopenia
I put c, now thinking d?
Can somebody help me out and tell me where i went wrong, I answered macrocytic anemia for this one because I was thinking that she had pernicious anemia. My reasoning was:
1) if a person has one autoimmune disease they're likely to have others( ie: anti-parietal cell antibodies)
2) the question said that the patient had a "ten year history" of symptoms leading to think that all the stored b12 has been depleted by this time, I was thinking maybe she got the anti- parietal cell antibodies sometime early during the 10 years and that then lead to a depletion of the b12...
After looking it up in pathoma it said that both anemia and thrombocytopenia can occur in SLE (pg. 18 B-8). I'm just really confused how it can be possible to pick btw the two answer choices.
Maybe I over thought this question... Picked thrombocytopenia at first then told myself that macrocytic anemia was a better answer for the above reasons.
Sorry in advance if this is an uber dumb question....