I will be pursuing a post-bac pre-med program. I earned a mediocre GPA (3.2 overall, 3.3 psychology major) at the Univ. of Southern Cal due to some poor grades during my freshman and sophomore years when I was going through some depression.
So even if I ace every pre-med science course I take as a post-bac (and I have to take all of them), Allopathic school is a long shot with my blemished academic record.
I would like to stay in California, and one (of the two) Osteopathic schools in CA lists a Science GPA of 3.31, an Overall GPA of 3.40, and an MCAT score of 27.90 for the admissions data of their c/o 2012. I am a good test taker, I know I can get a higher Science GPA than that average, and my Overall GPA should be right at or above that average.
So what's the catch?
I need to take ALL my science courses, and I could do that in one year and apply fall of 2010, or two years and apply in fall of 2011 (basically, the difference would be if I take 2 vs. 3 classes per semester).
If Allopathic school is out of reach, even if I take my time and ace every course over the two year plan, why not just do it all in one year (note that this would include 2 summers! as 'bookends') and apply to Osteopathic school, which I am very much in contention for already (according to data). Furthermore, if Allopathic school is a long shot for me, then Allopathic school in CA is probably impossible. Since I prefer to stay in CA, Osteopathic school has that advantage for me.
I am interested in neurology, psychiatry, and even neurosurgery (I am definitely interested in theory, but I know this might be too competitive in practical terms). I know that a higher rate of Osteopathic grads go into primary care (vs. Allopathic). Is that the "catch"? That if I want to succeed in my specialty of interest, I will be at a disadvantage having gone through Osteopathic school? However, I have heard that neurology is a very easy specialty to get matched for, even coming from Osteopathic schools. So for my situation, is the difference really just a matter of prestige/having to work harder to sell myself?
Obviously I should apply to both Osteopathic and Allopathic, but if Osteopathic is a more reasonable goal for my situation, and I could get started a whole year earlier if I opt for Osteopathic school (with a perhaps slightly less stellar transcript/application due to the hastened schedule), what's stopping me for just intending on Osteopathic school from the outset, rather than just "settling" for it if I don't get into an Allopathic school?
p.s. I know that I have a LOT of research to do, but I figure it makes more sense asking questions while I'm still ignorant (to guide my research) than after I learn the answers.
So even if I ace every pre-med science course I take as a post-bac (and I have to take all of them), Allopathic school is a long shot with my blemished academic record.
I would like to stay in California, and one (of the two) Osteopathic schools in CA lists a Science GPA of 3.31, an Overall GPA of 3.40, and an MCAT score of 27.90 for the admissions data of their c/o 2012. I am a good test taker, I know I can get a higher Science GPA than that average, and my Overall GPA should be right at or above that average.
So what's the catch?
I need to take ALL my science courses, and I could do that in one year and apply fall of 2010, or two years and apply in fall of 2011 (basically, the difference would be if I take 2 vs. 3 classes per semester).
If Allopathic school is out of reach, even if I take my time and ace every course over the two year plan, why not just do it all in one year (note that this would include 2 summers! as 'bookends') and apply to Osteopathic school, which I am very much in contention for already (according to data). Furthermore, if Allopathic school is a long shot for me, then Allopathic school in CA is probably impossible. Since I prefer to stay in CA, Osteopathic school has that advantage for me.
I am interested in neurology, psychiatry, and even neurosurgery (I am definitely interested in theory, but I know this might be too competitive in practical terms). I know that a higher rate of Osteopathic grads go into primary care (vs. Allopathic). Is that the "catch"? That if I want to succeed in my specialty of interest, I will be at a disadvantage having gone through Osteopathic school? However, I have heard that neurology is a very easy specialty to get matched for, even coming from Osteopathic schools. So for my situation, is the difference really just a matter of prestige/having to work harder to sell myself?
Obviously I should apply to both Osteopathic and Allopathic, but if Osteopathic is a more reasonable goal for my situation, and I could get started a whole year earlier if I opt for Osteopathic school (with a perhaps slightly less stellar transcript/application due to the hastened schedule), what's stopping me for just intending on Osteopathic school from the outset, rather than just "settling" for it if I don't get into an Allopathic school?
p.s. I know that I have a LOT of research to do, but I figure it makes more sense asking questions while I'm still ignorant (to guide my research) than after I learn the answers.
