Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
But...with a large enough normative sample, doesn't sampling theory dictate that those people who happen to have those psychotic disorders would be 'represented' in the normative sample (as long as there did not exist some specific bias/reason that they'd be excluded from the process?). Now, obviously, cross-sectionally (currently) floridly-psychotic schizophrenics would be less likely to show up in that normative sample for obvious reasons. But the presence of that dimensional construct (or constructs) relevant to the 'thought disorder' dimensions (and sub-components under a HiTOP framework) would be represented in a large enough normative sample of the population by definition, no?To be clear, there was no intentional collection of those folks or those with that diagnosis for collection with the EX. The result is that no diagnosis was captured for the normative sample, and no inclusion for those folks outside of paid normative sampling based on demographics of the census- which is unlikely to do a whole ton.
It snt in the tech manual. It was personal correspondence with the test author. Ive been part of a lot of mmpi/pai test development and I can tell ya, the tech manual and those reading it regularly miss many of the findings it in. And I can tell you explictly that reviews are NOT rigorous and that a lot of the test is just untested theory and weak science. For instance, how many longitudinal studies on the substantive scales exist (not many)? The validity theory is weak and limited. Recent tests like the iop see it the same way I do- domains dont show up on self report in a reliable and meaningful way